- #1
metroplex021
- 151
- 0
Hi folks -- could anyone think of a justification of the idea that if a function's arguments diverge (i.e. are taken to infinity), there's a high probability that the function too will diverge?
This would be really helpful for thinking about fundamental theories in particle physics, so any help much appreciated!
This would be really helpful for thinking about fundamental theories in particle physics, so any help much appreciated!