Exploring Limits in Polar Coordinates

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SUMMARY

The limit of the function f(x,y) = xy / sqrt(x² + y²) as (x,y) approaches (0,0) exists and is equal to 0. By converting to polar coordinates, where x = r cos(t) and y = r sin(t), the expression simplifies to f(r,t) = r cos(t) sin(t). As r approaches 0, the product r cos(t) sin(t) also approaches 0, regardless of the angle t, confirming the limit's existence through the Squeeze Theorem.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of limits in multivariable calculus
  • Knowledge of polar coordinates transformation
  • Familiarity with the Squeeze Theorem
  • Basic trigonometric identities and their applications
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the application of the Squeeze Theorem in multivariable limits
  • Explore polar coordinates in depth, focusing on their use in calculus
  • Learn about continuity and differentiability in multivariable functions
  • Investigate other methods for evaluating limits in multiple dimensions
USEFUL FOR

Students and educators in calculus, particularly those focusing on multivariable functions and limits, as well as mathematicians seeking to deepen their understanding of polar coordinates in limit evaluation.

quietrain
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Homework Statement


find limit if exist, or not then why

f(x,y) = xy / sqrt(x2+y2)
as (x,y) --> (0,0)

The Attempt at a Solution



can i change to polar coordinates
x=rcost
y=rsint

so f(r,t) = rcostsint

so as x,y tends to 0, r t will tend to 0 too?but cos(t) at 0 gives me 1?
so i can only rely on r?

so i say since r tends to 0 , rcostsint gives 0 , so the limit exist and is 0? but what about the variable t?

thanks!
 
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quietrain said:

Homework Statement


find limit if exist, or not then why

f(x,y) = xy / sqrt(x2+y2)
as (x,y) --> (0,0)

The Attempt at a Solution



can i change to polar coordinates
x=rcost
y=rsint

so f(r,t) = rcostsint

so as x,y tends to 0, r t will tend to 0 too?but cos(t) at 0 gives me 1?

When (x, y) tends to (0, 0), r will tend to 0, however t does not. This is because you can go to (0, 0) along many ways, so the angle t can be anything.

Say, if you go to (0, 0) along the x-axis from the left, then [tex]t = \pi[/tex].
If you go to (0, 0) along the y-axis from upwards, then [tex]t = \frac{\pi}{2}[/tex].

so i can only rely on r?

so i say since r tends to 0 , rcostsint gives 0 , so the limit exist and is 0? but what about the variable t?

If you can prove that the limit of your final expression (in r, and t) will tend to some value L as r tends to 0, and that limit does not depend on t. Then your original limit is also L.

In your example, we have: [tex]-r \le r\cos t\sin t \le r[/tex]. And let r tend to 0. By the Squeeze Theorem rcostsint will also tend to 0 (no matter what value of t is). So we have:

[tex]\lim_{(x, y) \rightarrow (0, 0)} \frac{xy}{\sqrt{x ^ 2 + y ^ 2}} = 0[/tex]

Is everything clear now? :)
 
thank you so much!
 

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