- #1

Andrea Vironda

- 69

- 3

i know that

**The homogeneity of space and time implies that the Lagrangian cannot contain**

explicitly either the radius vector r of the particle or the time t, i.e. L must be a function of v only

explicitly either the radius vector r of the particle or the time t, i.e. L must be a function of v only

but the lagrangian definition is ##L=\int L(\dot q,q,t)##, so velocity appears in the definition and it's in contrast with ##L=L(v^2)##

why?