Exploring the Paradoxical Einstein-Podolsky-Rosen Experiment

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I saw this Einstein, Podolsky, Rosen paradox in one of my textbooks and it is very interesting. The paradox simply challenges the Copenhagen (Orthodox) Interpretation of Quantum Mechanics by using the constancy of the speed of light.

It simply states that if we observe a pi meson decay into a positron and an electron, then wait long enough that

{delta}x >> ct

and measure the spin of the electron, we are going to collapse both the wavefunction of the electron and the positron. If we find the electron spin to be +1/2 the positron spin will be -1/2.

Thus it is claimed that then information will be carried over much faster than the speed of light which is not possible, so they conclude that the electron and the positron had definite spins prior to the measurement.

What do you make of that?

P.S. I would also be glad if someone would provide me a good source showing how Schroedinger came up with the Schroedinger Equation, I have looked at a bunch of books and could not find one, I am really curious about that.

P.S. How do you implement latex code in your messages?

Thanks.
 
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guguma said:
I saw this Einstein, Podolsky, Rosen paradox in one of my textbooks and it is very interesting. The paradox simply challenges the Copenhagen (Orthodox) Interpretation of Quantum Mechanics by using the constancy of the speed of light.
...

Thus it is claimed that then information will be carried over much faster than the speed of light which is not possible, so they conclude that the electron and the positron had definite spins prior to the measurement.

What do you make of that?

Welcome to PhysicsForums!

The EPR paper was the first in a series of 3 critical papers on this subject. It raised questions, but did not provide firm answers that were likely to change opinions. No experimental tests were proposed.

The second was the 1964 paper by J.S. Bell called "On the Einstein Podolsky Rosen paradox" which demonstrated that the EPR explanation was inconsistent with Quantum Mechanics: No physical theory of local Hidden Variables can ever reproduce all of the predictions of Quantum Mechanics. An experimental test was imagined to resolve the issue.

The third part was a series of experimental tests of the CHSH version of Bell's Inequality (derived from Bell's paper) which provided results consistent with Quantum Mechanics, but inconsistent with EPR.

You might be interested in this page from my web site:

EPR, Bell and Aspect: The original References[/URL]
 
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What do you make of that?
I'm not sure exactly what kinds of responses you're looking for, but the EPR issue inidcates to me that there is something fundamental about the relationship between quantum mechanics and spacetime that we do not fully understand.
 
This video may be an answer to your question:



However i have another question regarding this youtube vid:



Its the double slit experiment and shows that when we observe particles the wavefunction collapses and behave as particles. Some philosophers say it has to be an intelligent being observing the particle in order to collapse the wave function. But this wouldn't make any sense to me. In the video they show an eyeball watching the particles as a way of measuring it. However I would picture it as a device interfering with the particles, and showing the measurements on a screen.

So the question is: If a person does not look at the screen to see the results of measurements, would the particles still create an interference pattern or behave as particles when measured right before they pass the slits?

If answer is the wavefunction still collapses those philosophers would be wrong because no intelligent being observed its position.
 
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Some philosophers say it has to be an intelligent being observing the particle in order to collapse the wave function
I've never heard any reputable physicist say they believe that. Most theories I've heard either don't attempt to define wavefunction collapse, or hold something along the lines of a wavefunction collapse being caused by a thermodynamically irreversible interaction. Anyone who thinks that there needs to be an intelligent being involved is, for lack of a better word, nuts.
 
faen said:
This video may be an answer to your question:



However i have another question regarding this youtube vid:



Its the double slit experiment and shows that when we observe particles the wavefunction collapses and behave as particles. Some philosophers say it has to be an intelligent being observing the particle in order to collapse the wave function. But this wouldn't make any sense to me. In the video they show an eyeball watching the particles as a way of measuring it. However I would picture it as a device interfering with the particles, and showing the measurements on a screen.

So the question is: If a person does not look at the screen to see the results of measurements, would the particles still create an interference pattern or behave as particles when measured right before they pass the slits?

If answer is the wavefunction still collapses those philosophers would be wrong because no intelligent being observed its position.
I am sorry to say this but neither my question is about the double slit experiment nor these videos have any truth value in them. One of the clips are from "what the bleep do we know" (a movie) and the other is an animation made by infamous Dr. Quantum "Fred Allen Wolf". These guys are Zen Cultists and they have no idea of what they are talking about and all of it is just bullcrap.

Collapse of the wavefunction is just the localization of a probabilistic ensamble whose physical properties are defined by the Schroedinger Equation, it has nothing to do with consciousness or looking. But measurement is a different process because measurement picks out a value (by disturbing the system thus changing the physical constitution of the system) thus collapsing the probability of other values rather than the observed to zero.
 
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These guys are Zen Cultists and they have no idea of what they are talking about and all of it is just bullcrap.
Even though those clips have nothing to do with your question, I'm glad I got a chance to watch another one. I still see absolutely nothing wrong with those movies if they are considered as intended to a general or young audience. They clearly DO know what they are talking about. That second clip is a dumbed down version of the first chapter of volume III of the Feynman lectures.
 
Well the first video does indicate that all the particles are connected to each other, even at distant positions. This may be how the positron knows to pick the oposite spin state of the electron after a pi meson decay without having to be predetermined.

I agree that the videos are decieving. Crazy philosophers make crazy ideas based on the deceptive/missinterpreted arguments from the dr quantum vid.

A proof of that these philosophers are wrong, is if the wavefunction collapses without being observed/perceived in the mind. That is all I am asking.

In my physics book it just says a measurement causes it to collapse, but what is that? A force from a charged particle? If it is the force from a charged particle, why isn't a wave function collapsed all the time while traveling through air? How long does the collapse last?
 
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peter0302 said:
Even though those clips have nothing to do with your question, I'm glad I got a chance to watch another one. I still see absolutely nothing wrong with those movies if they are considered as intended to a general or young audience. They clearly DO know what they are talking about. That second clip is a dumbed down version of the first chapter of volume III of the Feynman lectures.

It may be similar, but they are right out of target, by showing an eye looking at a particle and basketballs jumping around the space. If you want to make a young audience interested
you should at least mention the disturbance of the system and not get into the consciousness part.

The basketball argument shows complete "n" basketballs occupying the whole space and than collapsing into only one basketball?

The videos thus are neither raising interest nor showing the truth, Feynman's "Nature of Physical Law" for example is directed towards a general or young audience (it has the double slit of volume III too) and it is not misleading.

Misleading creates pseudo-science and pseudo-science is no more tame but dangerous.
eg. scientology.
 
  • #10
OMG. Now you're comparing that to scientology! This is paranoia.

You wanted a video directed to kids to mention "disturbance of the system"? First of all, the uncertainty principle doesn't care whether the system was disturbed at all so your point isn't even valid.

Anyone who thinks that video is malicious or dangerous really needs to chill out and stop thinking themselves to be the Magisterium of all things quantum.
 
  • #11
faen said:
In my physics book it just says a measurement causes it to collapse, but what is that? A force from a charged particle? If it is the force from a charged particle, why isn't a wave function collapsed all the time while traveling through air? How long does the collapse last?

I read this from one of Heisenberg's books once, I do not remeber the exact quotation but still I will try to put it in my own words:

"What quantum mechanics taught us is that we can only talk about the interactions of two physical systems, because an isolated standing alone system need to be interacted by another one to "look" (measure, observe whatever) inside it but when this interaction occurs both systems are disturbed by their effect on each other and in the end we can only talk about this interaction"

I will give a crude example of collapse. Let's say I am running on a straight line and your eyes are closed and you have a catapult. You estimate that I am confined in a 100m line running back and forth and you start throwing rocks at me. When one rock hits me and sends you a signal that it hit me at +25.3m on the x axis, you have collapsed my wave function on top of this +25.3 at the instant. But I am disturbed too and after a while when I recover from the concussion I will continue running along the line again and if you wait long enough the only knowledge you have about me will be that I am confined in a 100m line. Now if the effect of the disturbance was "big" say you broke my leg my wavefunction will be different than the first 100m confining function.

Now this maybe a bit misleading too but think of this as picking a photon by a geiger counter, it clicks at a certain point but if the interaction between the counter and the photon somehow reduced or increased the total energy of the photon it will behave differently later on.
 
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  • #12
peter0302 said:
You wanted a video directed to kids to mention "disturbance of the system"? First of all, the uncertainty principle doesn't care whether the system was disturbed at all so your point isn't even valid.

Anyone who thinks that video is malicious or dangerous really needs to chill out and stop thinking themselves to be the Magisterium of all things quantum.
For someone who obviously hasn't watched this crackpot movie, you're quite the fan. Go and rent it! (As childish as those clips might have seemed, the movie is not directed towards kids.)

Enough already.
 
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  • #13
Well i like the vids, but the thing with the eyeball makes it unnecessary missleading. That part has convinced many non physicists that things don't exist before we see them etc.
 
  • #14
faen said:
Well i like the vids, but the thing with the eyeball makes it unnecessary missleading. That part has convinced many non physicists that things don't exist before we see them etc.
As I understand it, basically any thermodynamically irreversible interaction with the outside environment will cause the quantum system to behave as if it has been "measured", although the details of what variable the environment will act as if it is measuring will depend on the details of the interaction (in most cases I think the environment acts like it's measuring position).
 
  • #15
guguma said:
"What quantum mechanics taught us is that we can only talk about the interactions of two physical systems, because an isolated standing alone system need to be interacted by another one to "look" (measure, observe whatever) inside it but when this interaction occurs both systems are disturbed by their effect on each other and in the end we can only talk about this interaction"

I will give a crude example of collapse. Let's say I am running on a straight line and your eyes are closed and you have a catapult. You estimate that I am confined in a 100m line running back and forth and you start throwing rocks at me. When one rock hits me and sends you a signal that it hit me at +25.3m on the x axis, you have collapsed my wave function on top of this +25.3 at the instant. But I am disturbed too and after a while when I recover from the concussion I will continue running along the line again and if you wait long enough the only knowledge you have about me will be that I am confined in a 100m line. Now if the effect of the disturbance was "big" say you broke my leg my wavefunction will be different than the first 100m confining function.

Now this maybe a bit misleading too but think of this as picking a photon by a geiger counter, it clicks at a certain point but if the interaction between the counter and the photon somehow reduced or increased the total energy of the photon it will behave differently later on.

JesseM said:
As I understand it, basically any thermodynamically irreversible interaction with the outside environment will cause the quantum system to behave as if it has been "measured", although the details of what variable the environment will act as if it is measuring will depend on the details of the interaction (in most cases I think the environment acts like it's measuring position).

Thanks, now i understand it :)
 
  • #16
Doc Al said:
For someone who obviously hasn't watched this crackpot movie, you're quite the fan. Go and rent it! (As childish as those clips might have seemed, the movie is not directed towards kids.)

Enough already.
I haven't seen the whole "crackpot" movie. I've only seen those two youtube clips. I'm really immensly curious what is so bad about it, but I'm reluctant to rent it becuase I fear I will continue to not see what the big deal is and just get myself more worked up.
 
  • #17
peter0302 said:
I haven't seen the whole "crackpot" movie. I've only seen those two youtube clips. I'm really immensly curious what is so bad about it, but I'm reluctant to rent it becuase I fear I will continue to not see what the big deal is and just get myself more worked up.
Those "Dr. Quantum" clips aren't actually in the movie, I guess they were DVD extras or something. The one on the double-slit experiment didn't strike me as too bad except for at the end where they implied a conscious observer was needed to collapse the interference pattern, and the clip on entanglement isn't so bad except that "do something to one and the other responds instantly" has the potential to be pretty misleading, making people think entanglement could be used for FTL communication or something (and the part about everything still being entangled since they were together at the big bang would be controversial, although it could be seen as correct in the many-worlds interpretation). But the actual movie is a lot more new-agey then these Dr. Quantum clips, and I think that one clip on the double-slit experiment basically conveys more meaningful physics info than the entire movie.
 
  • #18
Ok.

Well here's my point. As a lawyer and ex-poly sci guy I can nit Schoolhouse Rock's song about how a bill becomes a law till I'm blue in the face, but at the end of the day it's a cute cartoon that conveys mainly correct information in an entertaining way. Sure the Dr. Quantum thing takes some liberties but not outrageous ones, and the liberties it does take are designed to spark more interest or wonder in the subject, NOT to mislead. After all - what do they possibly have to GAIN by making people think that "everything is connected" or that an "eyeball" implies human intervention. It is utterly harmles and might actually do some good.

As for this You Don't Know Bleep film, if these Dr.Q clips aren't even in the film then I really don't understand why everyone's in an uproar over it. I thought the uproar was over the Dr. Quantum stuff. I'm slightly relieved it's not.

Do people here really think that anything that doesn't cover a subject comprhensively and technically perfectly should be banned literature? If so we need to throw out every elementary or even high school science book because none of them can live up to that standard and still be comprhensible or remotely interesting to their audience.
 
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  • #19
The "Dr Quantum" clips were certainly in the version of the movie I saw. The double slit cartoon was the best part of the movie! The problem I have with those clips in the context of the movie was that they were used to provide the illusion of "scientific support" for the many outrageous crackpot claims made in the movie. I discussed these claims in a previous thread--and even provided links to detailed reviews of the content of the film.
 
  • #20
peter0302 said:
Sure the Dr. Quantum thing takes some liberties but not outrageous ones, and the liberties it does take are designed to spark more interest or wonder in the subject, NOT to mislead. After all - what do they possibly have to GAIN by making people think that "everything is connected" or that an "eyeball" implies human intervention. It is utterly harmles and might actually do some good.

Well it is the case that the liberties they take make a huge difference. Dr quantum basically tells that you have to perceive a particle with your mind to collapse the wave function, and that is very strange and what makes ppl think its an interresting movie. They gain a lot of viewers with this cheat, and it leads to retarded theories which quantum physics in reality does not support. People think that the quantum indetermacy is connected to the mind. If they had explained it correctly it would be obvious that the particle position is decided by hidden variables.
 
  • #21
faen said:
If they had explained it correctly it would be obvious that the particle position is decided by hidden variables.
That isn't standard quantum theory either! Only in the Bohm interpretation do particles have well-defined positions which are determined by hidden variables.
 
  • #22
Well it is the case that the liberties they take make a huge difference. Dr quantum basically tells that you have to perceive a particle with your mind to collapse the wave function, and that is very strange and what makes ppl think its an interresting movie.
That is absolutely NOT what the clip said - anywhere. You are completely reading that into it.

Now, I read a little more about the main film and it indeed sounds as wacky as others have said. The Dr. Quantum clips _themselves_ however, are not nearly as bad as some of the responses here have suggested.
 
  • #23
peter0302 said:
That is absolutely NOT what the clip said - anywhere. You are completely reading that into it.

Now, I read a little more about the main film and it indeed sounds as wacky as others have said. The Dr. Quantum clips _themselves_ however, are not nearly as bad as some of the responses here have suggested.

It does show an eyeball observing the particle causing its wave function to collapse. Hence it does say that it requires to be seen with the eye (and not the truth which is that interaction with another physical system causes the wave function to collapse). The eye leads the info to the brain/mind. This is what most people read into that movie, and how it pretty much lies. Other than the eyeball thing i can't think of anything that wrong with the movie though.
 
  • #24
Ever heard of METAPHOR?
 
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  • #25
peter0302 said:
Ever heard of METAPHOR?
But in the context of the rest of the movie, it's pretty unlikely they meant it as a metaphor.
 
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  • #26
peter0302 said:
Ever heard of METAPHOR?

Metaphor or not, its how the audience interpret the movie which is relevant. Everyone watching the movie have the impression that the wavefunction collapses because the mind perceived it. Thats the obvious way to interpret the movie, and that is how i observed other people i know have interpreted it.

Anyway, how can it be a metaphor? The observation through the eye, and disturbance of physical systems are two entirely different concepts.
 
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  • #27
faen said:
Anyway, how can it be a metaphor? The observation through the eye, and disturbance of physical systems are two entirely different concepts.
Not really, one way of observing the electron is to bounce light off it as it passes through the slits and measure the light, which is pretty much what the eye does. I think it could easily be interpreted as a metaphor in a different context, but in the context of that movie (whose main theme was the power of the mind to create reality) I feel pretty confident the creators didn't intend it as a metaphor.
 
  • #28
JesseM said:
Not really, one way of observing the electron is to bounce light off it as it passes through the slits and measure the light, which is pretty much what the eye does. I think it could easily be interpreted as a metaphor in a different context, but in the context of that movie (whose main theme was the power of the mind to create reality) I feel pretty confident the creators didn't intend it as a metaphor.

Yeah one can say its the eye which observes it through light, but its not the eye which collapsed the wave function, it was the photon.
 
  • #29
JesseM said:
Not really, one way of observing the electron is to bounce light off it as it passes through the slits and measure the light, which is pretty much what the eye does. I think it could easily be interpreted as a metaphor in a different context, but in the context of that movie (whose main theme was the power of the mind to create reality) I feel pretty confident the creators didn't intend it as a metaphor.


Our eyes do not radiate high energy photons enough to be able to hit onto electrons and reabsorb the photon. And leave that aside our brain is only able to interpret wavelengths through the visible spectrum. Otherwise you would be seeing electrons everywhere and we would not need LHC to look into subatomic particles.
 
  • #30
guguma said:
Our eyes do not radiate high energy photons enough to be able to hit onto electrons and reabsorb the photon. And leave that aside our brain is only able to interpret wavelengths through the visible spectrum.
What makes you think the photons would have to be "high energy" or outside the visible spectrum? I believe any wavelength of light can be used to detect on electron, although the light's wavelength needs to be smaller than the separation between the slits if you want to determine which slit it went through.
guguma said:
Otherwise you would be seeing electrons everywhere and we would not need LHC to look into subatomic particles.
Well, anytime you look at any solid object you're seeing the light scattered by many electrons in the atoms that make up its surface. But at low light levels the nerve cells in your retina actually can be triggered by very small numbers of photons, possibly even individual photons--see this page along with this one (which notes that we won't consciously see anything if a single retinal nerve fires, but it's thought that we can consciously see collections of 5 to 9 photons)

Also, the point of particle colliders like the LHC isn't to help us see preexisting particles with more sensitive photodectors, it's about creating particles that don't normally exist freely through high-energy collisions!
 
  • #31
faen said:
Yeah one can say its the eye which observes it through light, but its not the eye which collapsed the wave function, it was the photon.
Yes, you're right about that--if a photon interacts with an electron in such a way that there is the potential to pinpoint the electron's position by measuring the photon, that enough should be enough to make the electron act as if its position had been "observed". Although I don't think that all photon-electron interactions would qualify (I vaguely remember something about it depending on whether the scattering was inelastic or elastic, maybe because one is thermodynamically irreversible while the other is not, although I could be misremembering).
 
  • #32
no insults please

(Folks: Please resist the temptation to insult each other. You are better than that. Rather than delete the posts I will edit out the insulting remarks.)
 
  • #33
faen said:
Everyone watching the movie have the impression that the wavefunction collapses because the mind perceived it. Thats the obvious way to interpret the movie, and that is how i observed other people i know have interpreted it.

I would like to say first that I haven't seen either the movie, nor the clips.

But I can assure you that the viewpoint (although it is only that: a possible viewpoint) that there is a link between "subjective observation" on one hand, and "collapse of the wavefunction" on the other, is not a crazy concept: certain interpretations of quantum mechanics are based on exactly that idea. However, this does NOT mean some telepathic "mind force" or whatever, no, it means that *relative to a subjective observer* is *appears* as if the wavefunction collapsed. So it is not "by the power of the mind" or other BS that some *objective* wavefunction collapses, but rather that the interactions with whatever is the material support for a subjective experience (say, a brain) give rise to a perception of a collapsed wavefunction.

There are two "interpretational" schemes based on that concept: "many worlds" (of course :smile:) and also the "relational interpretation" by Rovelli.

It is one of the possible "philosophical solutions" to the fundamental dilemma of the interpretation of quantum theory. Because you have to know that a photon-electron interaction does NOT collapse the wavefunction, nor of the photon, nor of the electron, but simply ENTANGLES them, according to quantum theory. It is because nobody knows a *physical* process that gives rise to a *collapse* (all elementary physical processes - except gravity - are described by quantum mechanical unitary operators), that one ended up resorting to this kind of stories.
 
  • #34
Anyway, I don't know how we diverged from a question about EPR to a debate over whether an eyeball is a metaphor for a conscious observer or not, but the fact is many, many discussions of quantum mechanics, including statements from Heisenberg, emphasize the importance of the observer. The clip using a ROBOTIC EYE, which the narrator explicitly calls a "measuring device", does not imply consciousness. It simply implies MEASUREMENT, which is totally in line with mainstream theories.

About wavefunction collapse - there should be no physical difference between interaction of a photon-electron and the observation of a human eye other than complexity, assuming one doesn't buy into the "conscious observer" requirement. So, if it is complexity that gives rise to "collapse," whereas simple interactions give rise to "entanglement," "collapse" must be nothing more that entanglement that is too complex to be measurable, and thus the near-infinitely entangled wavefunction of the system becomes indistinguishable from a "collapsed" wavefunction. That's about the same as saying a "thermodynamically irreversible measurement" if I'm not mistaken, right?
 
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  • #35
peter0302 said:
About wavefunction collapse - there should be no physical difference between interaction of a photon-electron and the observation of a human eye other than complexity, assuming one doesn't buy into the "conscious observer" requirement. So, if it is complexity that gives rise to "collapse," whereas simple interactions give rise to "entanglement," "collapse" must be nothing more that entanglement that is too complex to be measurable, and thus the near-infinitely entangled wavefunction of the system becomes indistinguishable from a "collapsed" wavefunction.
Yes, I think that's exactly the issue-- the complexity comes from all the untraceable noise modes, which when you give up on tracing explicitly, induce a random "decohering" effect on the interferences between the amplitudes of the different outcomes. I would say that "wavefunction collapse" proceeds in two steps: the first is the real guts of it, which is the process of getting quantum systems to behave classically, and that is best accomplished by actual coupling to systems that we already know behave classically. It is only this first step that has anything to do with quantum mechanics, and the wavefunction is already collapsed, we just don't know how yet. The second step is "looking at the result", but we also do that in classical physics, so it's not really an important step at all! It was our intention to induce the classical behavior so that we could use the familiar tools of science on the outcome, that is at the core of collapse, not consciousness.
 
  • #36
vanesch said:
It is because nobody knows a *physical* process that gives rise to a *collapse* (all elementary physical processes - except gravity - are described by quantum mechanical unitary operators), that one ended up resorting to this kind of stories.
I think that's true, and the reason that nobody knows how the physical process of collapse works is that by definition it requires a virtually infinite degree of complexity. Nobody knows how the air gets into our lungs, in detail, when we breathe, yet we have a perfectly good theory for how that process will end up shaking out. So it is with measurement-- we know how classical systems behave, so we intentionally couple quantum systems to classical ones so that we can better understand the outcome, even though we don't know in detail how that outcome occurred. We choose what information we want to track, and what information we feel we can get away with "averaging over"-- the result has our fingerprints all over it. Those fingerprints create the philosophical difficulties with associating all this with objective reality, not quantum behavior itself. If an electron could think, how would it construct a theory of quantum mechanics? I wager it would look totally different, because the electron would have no use for classical couplings.
 
  • #37
peter0302 said:
About wavefunction collapse - there should be no physical difference between interaction of a photon-electron and the observation of a human eye other than complexity, assuming one doesn't buy into the "conscious observer" requirement. So, if it is complexity that gives rise to "collapse," whereas simple interactions give rise to "entanglement," "collapse" must be nothing more that entanglement that is too complex to be measurable, and thus the near-infinitely entangled wavefunction of the system becomes indistinguishable from a "collapsed" wavefunction. That's about the same as saying a "thermodynamically irreversible measurement" if I'm not mistaken, right?
Even a thermodynamically irreversible interaction between two systems can be modeled as just a giant entanglement, as I understand it this is the approach taken in the analysis of decoherence--you'd actually have to model things this way if the systems were completely isolated from outside, like the Schroedinger's cat thought-experiment. But in terms of the double-slit experiment, even if the electron just becomes "entangled" with a photon as it passes through the slit, as long as the entanglement is such that a measurement of the photon could have told you which slit the electron went through at some point, that is enough to ensure that when the electron is measured at the detector, it will show no interference, regardless of what happens to that photon. For a similar example, see the delayed choice quantum eraser (which is interesting because it allows you to measure the entangled particle in such a way that the information about which slit the first one went through is 'erased'), and you might also take a look at the thread Does a beam of entangled photons create interference fringes? and the follow-up thread entanglement and which-path.
 
  • #38
Unfortunately the "Does a beam of entangled photons create interference fringes?" doesn't seem to answer the question at all! No one can agree.
 
  • #39
peter0302 said:
Unfortunately the "Does a beam of entangled photons create interference fringes?" doesn't seem to answer the question at all! No one can agree.
It's really only RandallB who disagreed on that thread, despite the fact that he was given links to professional physicists saying they wouldn't. And if you look at the "entanglement and which-path" thread, he asked for links to actual experimental results showing this, and other people on the thread posted several.
 
  • #40
Well, wait a minute, the Dopfer thesis, which has been commented on positively by Zelinger (who was her advisor), suggests that one member of a pair of entangled photons does indeed produce an interference pattern depending on how the other member of the pair is detected. So who's right?
 
  • #41
peter0302 said:
Well, wait a minute, the Dopfer thesis, which has been commented on positively by Zelinger (who was her advisor), suggests that one member of a pair of entangled photons does indeed produce an interference pattern depending on how the other member of the pair is detected. So who's right?
Isn't the Dopfer experiment based on coincidence-counting? According to orthodox QM you can recover interference patterns in selected subsets of entangled photons, just not in their total pattern. Also, as noted by Cramer here (in the paragraph which begins with 'At the AQRTP Workshop ...'), something called "Eberhard's theorem" (which seems to have been proven here) proves definitively that according to orthodox QM, it is impossible for experimenters to communicate faster than light using the results of measurements on entangled particles, which would be the case if you could tell what happened to the entangled partners of a group of photons just by looking at what pattern they form in a double-slit experiment. Cramer's hope that a modified Dopfer experiment might actually allow FTL communication seems to be based on the idea that orthodox QM might be subtly incorrect, and require some additional nonlinear terms. But from what he writes in that article, it seems Cramer would agree that if one just wants to know what results are predicted by standard QM for the modified Dopfer experiment, the answer is that one cannot gain information about what happened at a distant detector by just looking at the total pattern at the detector near you.
 
  • #42
You're definitely right about what orthodox QM predicts. However, I have a hard time reconciling that with the Dopfer paper.

It's difficult because of the language issues (the paper is only in German). And you're right that she uses coincidence counting, but I'll be damned if I can figure out why:

Dopfer takes two entangled beams. She sends one through a double slit and sends the other to a converging lens. All depends on where the detector behind the converging lens is placed. If the detector is placed at the imaging plane corresponding to the double-slit, allowing you to know "whick slit", then the photons actually detected behind the _real_ double slit show a gaussian pattern. If the detector is placed at the focal plane corresponding to the origin of the beam, making it impossible to know "which slit," the photons detected behind the _real_ double slit show an interference pattern.

So it is totally unclear to me (as it is to Cramer!) why Dopfer needs coincidence counting at all in order to look at whether the photons behind the real double slit are creating an interference pattern or not.

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The only reason I can see for needing the coincidence counter in the Dopfer experiment is solely for the purpose of knowing which photon detected behind the lens corresponds to which photon detected behind the double slit. But, unlike experiments like DCQE, the coincidence counter is not picking out photons to form an interference pattern. So, as Cramer asks, why can't we put a CCD behind the double slit and see a visible interfernece pattern? No one has an answer to this.
 
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  • #43
peter0302 said:
Dopfer takes two entangled beams. She sends one through a double slit and sends the other to a converging lens. All depends on where the detector behind the converging lens is placed. If the detector is placed at the imaging plane corresponding to the double-slit, allowing you to know "whick slit", then the photons actually detected behind the _real_ double slit show a gaussian pattern. If the detector is placed at the focal plane corresponding to the origin of the beam, making it impossible to know "which slit," the photons detected behind the _real_ double slit show an interference pattern.
As no other entanglement experiment works that way, I'm confident this one doesn't either. The coincidence counter is always essential to see anything that depends on where the detector of the other beam is placed. There's a good reason for that-- all of quantum mechanics was developed for entangled particles where you only look at one "beam" (where can one find a source of "unentangled particles"? They're not available at the store.)
So, as Cramer asks, why can't we put a CCD behind the double slit and see a visible interfernece pattern? No one has an answer to this.
One would certainly expect a visible interference pattern if the amplitudes for those experimental outcomes are logically allowed to interfere in the proper information accounting of the full setup. The only way to eliminate that is to correlate the outcomes with some other results that are not consistent with interference from both slits. Thus coincidence counting must be an essential component of seeing entanglement effects of any kind, or quantum mechanics would never have worked from the outset. I'm confident that ideas to the contrary are just a mistake in how the outcomes of the experiment are being reported/interpreted. Unfortunately, I don't speak German.
 
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  • #44
Found an interesting post on another forum about the Dopfer experiment and why the coincidence count is crucial to seeing an interference pattern:

http://www.docendi.org/re-t4876.html?

PostReplies wrote:
> That's what Cramer is doing. Here's another page I found explaining
> his experiment and a very interesting earlier experiment which was
> encouraging:
>
> http://www.paulfriedlander.com/text/...experiment.htm

There is no nonlocal communication here. It's critical to understand that
the four graphs (around halfway down the page) do not represent images
recorded on a photographic plate or CCD. Rather, they represent hit rates on
a yes-or-no detector (think Geiger counter) as it's physically moved across
the detection field while the other detector is held fixed, and only the
cases where both detectors register a particle are counted. This makes a big
difference! You will get completely different results this way than with
photographic film. To see why, consider a simplified experiment in which
each detector can be moved to four different locations (D1 in locations
11,12,13,14 and D2 in locations 21,22,23,24). Suppose our light source is
such that all the light beams it generates pass through locations whose sum
is even -- for example, it will generate beam pairs going through 11 and 21,
but never through 11 and 22. The possible combinations are marked with "X"
below.

<br /> <br /> \begin{array}{l | c|c|c|c |} \ &amp;21&amp;22&amp;23&amp;24\\<br /> \hline 11&amp;X&amp;\,&amp;X&amp;\,\\<br /> \hline 12&amp;\,&amp;X&amp;\,&amp;X\\<br /> \hline 13&amp;X&amp;\,&amp;X&amp;\,\\<br /> \hline 14&amp;\,&amp;X&amp;\,&amp;X\\<br /> \hline<br /> \end{array}<br />

Now suppose D1 is held fixed (at any position) while D2 is moved, and
simultaneous clicks of D1 and D2 are recorded. Regardless of the fixed value
of D1, you will get a bright, dim, bright, dim pattern, which is our
simplified discrete version of an interference pattern. But if you consider
only the data from D2, without the coincidence counter, there will be no
interference pattern, just an equal distribution over all four locations.
Similarly, if you replace the detectors with photographic plates, there will
be no interference pattern on either plate.

Now in front of D1 insert a scrambling device that perturbs each incoming
photon so that, regardless of where it was originally headed, it's now
equally likely to go to any of the locations 11,12,13,14. Now, when you
again hold D1 fixed while varying D2 and counting coincidences, you will no
longer see an interference pattern. But the raw data from D2 has not changed
at all -- all that has changed is which raw detection events we subsequently
threw away at the coincidence counter.

This is what's going on in Dopfer's experiment (as both Dopfer and Zeilinger
realize).

-- Ben
And a subsequent post:
Gerry Quinn wrote:
> I'm not convinced your 'simplified' version of the experiment is
> actually the same experiment at all!

It's not intended to be the same, just to illustrate the importance of
the coincidence counter. It's pretty similar though, aside from being
discrete and classical and omitting the slits.

> The primary function of the coincidence counter, as described in the
> linked URL, is to separate valid pairs of entangled photons.

That's wrong; it's a misunderstanding by the guy who wrote that page,
and it's presumably the cause of all his other misunderstandings. The
two detectors have very narrow detection cross sections, and
deliberately miss most of the photons that pass them by. If the
coincidence counting had the purpose you suggest, it would make sense to
replace the fixed detector by one with a much wider cross section, since
this would give you a much larger data set. In reality this would
destroy the signal: the better the detector at D2, the less difference
there will be between the two graphs labeled "Measurement at D1". These
graphs do not show measurements at D1. They show a slice through the
parameter space of the nonseparable function f(x1,x2) that relates
detector position to coincidence count. With a wider detector at D2
you'd instead get integral f(x1,x2) dx2, which would look completely
different.

-- Ben
 
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  • #45
peter0302 said:
About wavefunction collapse - there should be no physical difference between interaction of a photon-electron and the observation of a human eye other than complexity, assuming one doesn't buy into the "conscious observer" requirement. So, if it is complexity that gives rise to "collapse," whereas simple interactions give rise to "entanglement," "collapse" must be nothing more that entanglement that is too complex to be measurable, and thus the near-infinitely entangled wavefunction of the system becomes indistinguishable from a "collapsed" wavefunction. That's about the same as saying a "thermodynamically irreversible measurement" if I'm not mistaken, right?

The big difference between a "physical" observation (with irreversible entanglement and all that) and a "subjective" observer, is that the first one doesn't require there to be ONE outcome, while the second one does, as this is what is experienced. Both agree on the KINDS of outcomes, which is fixed by the irreversible entanglement. But this entanglement doesn't give "preference" to any of the terms! It just fixes the KINDS of terms into classically-like states. That's why you don't see a ghostly superposition of "pointer to the left" and "pointer to the right" (or, more dramatically, live cat and dead cat). These terms are not present. But there IS a term present which describes a coherent, classical environment+result+pointer_to_the_left+... AND there IS a term with the same thing, but "pointer_to_the_right". There is no term with a superposition of both.

THAT is what irreversible entanglement gives us. But it doesn't ERASE all terms but one. Now, for a physical observation device, as EACH of its states in this list is entirely compatible with a classical state, ALL of the terms will be "ok". If there is a computer, say, well, then in one term there will be a certain output on the screen, and it will be compatible with what a webcam saw, and what is printed on the paper and all that, and in ANOTHER term there will be another output on the screen, which will be compatible with another image on a webcam, and with another output of a printer. So ALL of these terms are "internally classically consistent". No "physical observer" will find anything odd, as in EACH of its states, everything will be consistent. So there is no NEED for collapse as long as you only require physical observers, which can only check for relative consistency. No "absurd state" is generated. At no point, there will be an internal conflict within a state of this physical observer system. At no point, there will be a conflict between what's on the webcam and on the printer.

The difference is that *subjectively* we have the impression to see only ONE of these terms. And THEN we need some or other form of "collapse", which PICKS one of the different, irreversibly entangled terms. Now, from the moment that a subjective observer observes a physical observer, as he will pick ONE branch in this list (being a subjective observer), he will only observe the physical observer in ONE single consistent observation state, but it would be an error to deduce that this physical observer can only be in one such state! You can't know! You don't know if physical observers *appear* to have only one result (which is NOT what unitary quantum theory tells us), or if they have several consistent results, of which YOU (as subjective observer) only observe one (which is consistent with all the rest within that branch).

This is the famous AND/OR problem: decoherence gives us a list of different consistent classically-looking states (and as such, eliminates the "spooky superpositions and inconsistencies" of the kind "half-dead" and "half-live" cat), which appear in the wavefunction as a result of decohering interactions. So we now have a quantum state which has "classical state 1" AND "classical state 2" AND ...

A physical observer doesn't meet any inconsistency in being in all these states, because each one corresponds to an entirely consistent classical picture.

But a subjective observer doesn't experience this. He only finds ONE of these states in the list. To him, things appear as if he could have observed "classical state 1" OR "classical state 2" OR...

So, decoherence doesn't solve the AND/OR problem, which is the problem of collapse.
 
  • #46
Ken G said:
I think that's true, and the reason that nobody knows how the physical process of collapse works is that by definition it requires a virtually infinite degree of complexity. Nobody knows how the air gets into our lungs, in detail, when we breathe, yet we have a perfectly good theory for how that process will end up shaking out. So it is with measurement-- we know how classical systems behave, so we intentionally couple quantum systems to classical ones so that we can better understand the outcome, even though we don't know in detail how that outcome occurred.

That would be nice, but it doesn't work. You see, no matter how complicated the interactions are, if they follow standard quantum mechanics, they are all described by unitary time evolution operators. And here's the problem: if the overall time evolution operator is unitary, no matter how complicated and convoluted, then superpositions survive it.
So we have a general mathematical property of the time evolution operator which gives us problems, and for which we don't have to know its details and complexity.

In your analogy, it is as if, say, the total energy in the air inhaled was not conserved. We don't need to know all the details of all the molecules in the inhaling process: we know that each of them is going to conserve energy, and from that, we can deduce that total energy will be conserved. So, no matter how complicated is the air flow, we have a general theorem, deduced from the elementary interactions, which gives us conservation of energy. So if we see that the air flow doesn't conserve energy in an inhalation process, we cannot simply dismiss this by saying that "well, as we can't know the complexity of the inhalation process, this might as well work out this way". No, we know that if the air molecules follow energy-conserving interactions, it is IMPOSSIBLE to obtain a violation of conservation of energy, NO MATTER HOW COMPLICATED will be its flow.
 
  • #47
peter0302 said:
You're definitely right about what orthodox QM predicts. However, I have a hard time reconciling that with the Dopfer paper.

It's difficult because of the language issues (the paper is only in German). And you're right that she uses coincidence counting, but I'll be damned if I can figure out why:

Dopfer takes two entangled beams. She sends one through a double slit and sends the other to a converging lens. All depends on where the detector behind the converging lens is placed. If the detector is placed at the imaging plane corresponding to the double-slit, allowing you to know "whick slit", then the photons actually detected behind the _real_ double slit show a gaussian pattern. If the detector is placed at the focal plane corresponding to the origin of the beam, making it impossible to know "which slit," the photons detected behind the _real_ double slit show an interference pattern.

So it is totally unclear to me (as it is to Cramer!) why Dopfer needs coincidence counting at all in order to look at whether the photons behind the real double slit are creating an interference pattern or not.

[Edit]
The only reason I can see for needing the coincidence counter in the Dopfer experiment is solely for the purpose of knowing which photon detected behind the lens corresponds to which photon detected behind the double slit. But, unlike experiments like DCQE, the coincidence counter is not picking out photons to form an interference pattern. So, as Cramer asks, why can't we put a CCD behind the double slit and see a visible interfernece pattern? No one has an answer to this.


I didn't look into this, but I might guess an experimental "feature": the efficiency of the photon counter is not uniform, and depends on the incident lens image. As such, there might be a preferential selection for "which way" photons, or for "interference" photons, if the detection efficiencies are different or non-uniform over the detector, which would come down to an actual coincidence count experiment as usual, at least for a fraction of the sample.
 
  • #48
vanesch said:
You see, no matter how complicated the interactions are, if they follow standard quantum mechanics, they are all described by unitary time evolution operators. And here's the problem: if the overall time evolution operator is unitary, no matter how complicated and convoluted, then superpositions survive it.
That's actually not true expressly because of the inadequacy of the concept of "superposition" in regard to a macro system. Many people think a "superposition" is a fundamental state, but it's not-- the fundamental state is called a "pure state", and what "superposition" really means is a relationship between two non-commuting measurements-- the measurement that first prepared the initial pure state, and the later measurement you are using the concept of superposition to predict. So if there is no "initial measurement" that prepared the system in a known state, then there is no such thing as the "superposition". The idea breaks down right away, even before consideration of any unitarity of the operators.

Put differently, once has to assume the macro system is describable as a pure state before one can even apply your argument-- but that assumption is borne out by no experiment. I see it very similar to the pre-quantum view that particles had an exact position and velocity, we just didn't have the precision to specify them. But that had never been shown to be true by experiment, and in fact, turned out to not be true-- we were just taking our own theories too seriously. Quantum mechanics was our wake-up call to not do that, so let's not do it to quantum mechanics!
So we have a general mathematical property of the time evolution operator which gives us problems, and for which we don't have to know its details and complexity.
It's only a problem if we think reality is a slave to our preconceptions.
No, we know that if the air molecules follow energy-conserving interactions, it is IMPOSSIBLE to obtain a violation of conservation of energy, NO MATTER HOW COMPLICATED will be its flow.
I wouldn't shout that, it simply isn't true. Energy is only very nearly exactly conserved by anything dynamical, because of the finite lifetime of the system. The classic mistake of "classical" physics is to take its principles as if they were absolute statements of reality, yet when we go to the quantum realm, we find they are not. Why would we think we can do that in reverse-- to claim that a macro system can be in a pure state even though we have no idea how to accomplish that feat, or even to demonstrate that we accomplished it?

In terms of the "correspondence principle", this means if we are to take that as a scientific principle, it must be demonstrable, which means the principle should actually be stated "aggregating quantum principles as we aggregate the quantum systems into a classical one cannot make a false prediction about the classical system"-- but that doesn't establish that a classical system can be in a pure state, because no experiment will either refute or establish that pure state. My answer to the "cat paradox" is very simple: cats cannot be in pure states, and coupling them to pure states ends the purity of the quantum state-- not the converse. Again, that's the whole point of coupling quantum systems to measurement devices that we can count on to behave classically.
 
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  • #49
Ken G said:
That's actually not true expressly because of the inadequacy of the concept of "superposition" in regard to a macro system.

If you stick by the axioms of quantum theory (which you are free to do so or not, but I'm looking at the *toy world* in which these axioms are considered true), then EVERY state of the system is described by an element of a projective hilbert space. There's no distinction between "macro" and "micro" states. EVERY state.

Now, if you assume that this is not applicable to certain kinds of systems, then you're playing with *another* toyworld. It will then follow different rules, but for sure, you cannot say that it is purely described by the axioms of quantum mechanics. And then you have the difficulty of explaining what is "micro" and what is "macro" and what applies where.

So, for sake of argument, I stick to this toy world in which the axioms of quantum mechanics are strictly valid. By definition then, the physical state is given by a state vector. And from here on, we go further.

Many people think a "superposition" is a fundamental state, but it's not-- the fundamental state is called a "pure state", and what "superposition" really means is a relationship between two non-commuting measurements-- the measurement that first prepared the initial pure state, and the later measurement you are using the concept of superposition to predict. So if there is no "initial measurement" that prepared the system in a known state, then there is no such thing as the "superposition". The idea breaks down right away, even before consideration of any unitarity of the operators.

This is in a Copenhagen like view, where you have a classical world with "quantum gates" or whatever, where systems are classically prepared, then "plunge into the quantum world", and re-emerge classically when they are observed.

But clearly in that view, not everything is at all times described by the axioms of quantum mechanics.

Put differently, once has to assume the macro system is describable as a pure state before one can even apply your argument-- but that assumption is borne out by no experiment. I see it very similar to the pre-quantum view that particles had an exact position and velocity, we just didn't have the precision to specify them. But that had never been shown to be true by experiment, and in fact, turned out to not be true-- we were just taking our own theories too seriously.

To me, the exercise is to take the theory TOTALLY seriously, in its toy world.
And yes, in the toy world of classical physics, particles DO have perfectly well defined positions and momenta.

I wouldn't shout that, it simply isn't true. Energy is only very nearly exactly conserved by anything dynamical, because of the finite lifetime of the system.

Uh, but a system with a finite lifetime doesn't violate the conservation of energy! It simply wasn't in a pure energy eigenstate - otherwise it could not evolve, and hence not have a finite lifetime.


The classic mistake of "classical" physics is to take its principles as if they were absolute statements of reality, yet when we go to the quantum realm, we find they are not. Why would we think we can do that in reverse-- to claim that a macro system can be in a pure state even though we have no idea how to accomplish that feat, or even to demonstrate that we accomplished it?

Because in the toy world defined by the axioms of quantum mechanics, that's what postulated!

In terms of the "correspondence principle", this means if we are to take that as a scientific principle, it must be demonstrable, which means the principle should actually be stated "aggregating quantum principles as we aggregate the quantum systems into a classical one cannot make a false prediction about the classical system"-- but that doesn't establish that a classical system can be in a pure state, because no experiment will either refute or establish that pure state. My answer to the "cat paradox" is very simple: cats cannot be in pure states, and coupling them to pure states ends the purity of the quantum state-- not the converse. Again, that's the whole point of coupling quantum systems to measurement devices that we can count on to behave classically.

That's the Copenhagen view. But it leaves you with the unsatisfied impression that there is no available description for the link between quantum theory (which is valid microscopically, and clearly not macroscopically here) and classical theory which does the opposite. It is simply by the big distance between "micro" and "macro" that we don't seem to be bothered by what actually makes nature "jump theories" in between.

In such a viewpoint, there's no need to talk about things like decoherence. At a certain point, you simply DECIDE to say that now, we switch to classical, no more superpositions. You can do that whenever you feel like not following through the quantum interactions anymore. A photon interacting with an electron can be "classical" or "quantum" according to how much pain you want to give yourself.
You can call a photo-electric effect a "measurement", and if you stop there, that can be good enough. You can also call it a quantum-mechanical interaction, and careful experimenting might give you some interference effects. So if you decide to study that, it is still "in the quantum world", but if you don't bother, well then it was in fact already classical.
 
  • #50
vanesch said:
I didn't look into this, but I might guess an experimental "feature": the efficiency of the photon counter is not uniform, and depends on the incident lens image. As such, there might be a preferential selection for "which way" photons, or for "interference" photons, if the detection efficiencies are different or non-uniform over the detector, which would come down to an actual coincidence count experiment as usual, at least for a fraction of the sample.
From the comments by "Ben" I posted in post #44, I think the issue is that each detector actually only covers a very narrow range of positions (along the axis perpendicular to the incoming photons), and the position of each detector must be varied over many trials to build up an extended interference pattern or non-interference pattern; it seems like the issue is that the interference pattern in one detector is built up by varying the position of that detector while holding the position of the other detector constant, so you're only looking at the subset of photons at one detector whose entangled twins went to one very narrow range of positions on the other side of the apparatus. If you used something like a wide CCD which could detect photons at a significant range of positions, so that you didn't need to vary the horizontal positions of the two detectors in order to build up interference patterns or non-interference patterns, I think the result would be that you wouldn't see an interference pattern at either detector.
 
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