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For some reason, I'm having trouble with what I feel should be a relatively simple derivative to take. Feynman is differentiating the potential to find the z-component of the electric field. He has:
-\frac{\partial \phi}{\partial z} = - \frac{p}{4 \pi \epsilon_0} \frac{\partial }{\partial z} \left(\frac{z}{r^3}\right) = -\frac{p}{4 \pi \epsilon_0} \left(\frac{1}{r^3} - \frac{3z^2}{r^5} \right )
I'm not quite sure how he takes that derivative.
-\frac{\partial \phi}{\partial z} = - \frac{p}{4 \pi \epsilon_0} \frac{\partial }{\partial z} \left(\frac{z}{r^3}\right) = -\frac{p}{4 \pi \epsilon_0} \left(\frac{1}{r^3} - \frac{3z^2}{r^5} \right )
I'm not quite sure how he takes that derivative.