Final repulsed velocity of two different charged masses

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on calculating the final velocities of two charged metal spheres with masses 2.0g and 4.0g after a massless string connecting them is cut. The total energy conservation principle is applied, where the initial potential energy, given by kqQ/R, equals the final kinetic energy expressed as 0.5*m1*v1^2 + 0.5*m2*v2^2. To solve for the two unknown velocities, v1 and v2, an additional relationship based on the forces acting on each sphere is required, utilizing F = m*a and integrating the equations of motion.

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Dester
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1. Two small metal spheres with masses 2.0g and 4.0g are tied together by a 5cm long massless string and are at rest on a frictionless table. Each sphere has a (mue)c charge.
The string is cut, what are the velocities of the sphere when they are far apart

I know two conservative qualities are at play, electric energy, and I'm not sure of the other
I tried using change under the curve with r being the variable (kQq/r) being equal to work and then said mv^2/2. However I can't articulate how I am sure this is the wrong approach.

What is the right way/approach?
 
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Dester said:
What is the right way/approach?

You have the right idea.

You want to look at the total energy of the system before and after.

Before:

total kinetic energy is zero (both spheres are at rest)
total potential energy is kqQ/R


After:

total kinetic energy is 0.5*m1*v1^2 + 0.5*m2*v2^2
total potential energy is zero


So you get this equation as a result:

total energy before = total energy after
kqQ/R = 0.5*m1*v1^2 + 0.5*m2*v2^2

but that's two unknowns (v1, v2) with only one equation.


You need another bit of information and that is the force each sphere experiences is the same for all time (action / reaction).

Look at each of the spheres:

F = m1*a1
F = m2*a2

In terms of velocity:

F*dt = m1*dv1
F*dt = m2*dv2

You should be able to integrate that, equate them, and come up with another relationship between v1 and v2.


It might be worthwhile to check the answer by doing it the hard way, if only for the exercise. F = ma, F=kqQ/R^2, find position of each sphere as function of time or perhaps velocity as a function of x. In either case you take the limit as t or x goes to infinity to find the final velocities.
 

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