Find the exact volume of a bounded surface. Multiple Integrals.

notorious_lx
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1. Ok, so the question is.. Find the exact volume of the solid bounded above by the surface [itex]z=e^{-x^2-y^2}[/itex], below by the xy-plane, and on the side by [itex]x^2+y^2=1[/itex].
2. Alright. So, I know that I can use a double integral to find the volume, and switching to polar coordinates would be simpler.[itex]z=e^{-r^2}[/itex] and [itex]r^2 =1[/itex], therefore [itex]z=e^{-1}[/itex].
3. I'm not sure how to calculate the double integral. I know volume would be the double integral of the top surface minus the bottom surface, but do i need to split the surface into two separate double integrals and add them together? This should be easy but I can't seem to figure this out.
 
Last edited:
on Phys.org
notorious_lx said:
1. Ok, so the question is.. Find the exact volume of the solid bounded above by the surface [itex]z=e^{-x^2-y^2}[/itex], below by the xy-plane, and on the side by [itex]x^2+y^2=1[/itex].



2. Alright. So, I know that I can use a double integral to find the volume, and switching to polar coordinates would be simpler.[itex]z=e^{-r^2}[/itex] and [itex]r^2 =1[/itex], therefore [itex]z=e^{-1}[/itex].
Not quite. ##r=1## only on the bounding surface. But inside the volume you need to use ##e^{-r^2}##.
3. I'm not sure how to calculate the double integral. I know volume would be the double integral of the top surface minus the bottom surface, but do i need to split the surface into two separate double integrals and add them together? This should be easy but I can't seem to figure this out.

Not sure what is bothering you here. What do you get when you set up the integral in polar coordinates using "top - bottom" surface in the integrand as you suggest?
 
You integrate [itex]e^{-r^2}[itex]with r from 0 to 1, [itex]\theta[/itex] from 0 to [itex]2\pi[/itex]. The "differential of area" in polar coordinates is [itex]r dr d\theta[/itex].[/itex][/itex]
 
OK here is what I have so far..

[itex]\int_0^{2\pi} \int_{-rsinθ}^{rsinθ} (e^{-r^2}-{\frac{1}{e}})rdrdθ + \int_0^{2\pi} \int_{-rsinθ}^{rsinθ} ({\frac{1}{e}}rdrdθ)[/itex]

I'm not sure if this is right.. I may be overthinking this way too much.. haha

edit: This is just equal to [itex]\int_0^{2\pi} \int_{-rsinθ}^{rsinθ} (e^{-r^2})rdrdθ[/itex] right?
 
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notorious_lx said:
OK here is what I have so far..

[itex]\int_0^{2\pi} \int_{-rsinθ}^{rsinθ} (e^{-r^2}-{\frac{1}{e}})rdrdθ + \int_0^{2\pi} \int_{-rsinθ}^{rsinθ} ({\frac{1}{e}}rdrdθ)[/itex]

I'm not sure if this is right.. I may be overthinking this way too much.. haha

edit: This is just equal to [itex]\int_0^{2\pi} \int_{-rsinθ}^{rsinθ} (e^{-r^2})rdrdθ[/itex] right?

Well, they aren't equal because you dropped the ##\frac 1 e##. But where did that come from anyway?? And your inner limits, the ##r## limits, are incorrect. What is the equation of the circle ##x^2+y^2=1## in polar coordinates? Where did the ##\sin\theta## terms come from?
 
ok i had [itex]\int_0^1 \int_{-\sqrt{1-x^2}}^{\sqrt{1-x^2}} (e^{-(x^2+y^2)})[/itex]
Then I did this and used [itex]r^2=1[/itex], but this is only on the boundary so this is incorrect.
[itex] \begin{align}<br /> &= \sqrt{1-x^2}\\<br /> &= \sqrt{r^2-r^2\cos^2{\theta}}\\<br /> &= r\sqrt{1-\cos^2{\theta}}\\<br /> &= r\sin{\theta}<br /> \end{align}[/itex]
 
notorious_lx said:
ok i had [itex]\int_0^1 \int_{-\sqrt{1-x^2}}^{\sqrt{1-x^2}} (e^{-(x^2+y^2)})[/itex]
Then I did this and used [itex]r^2=1[/itex], but this is only on the boundary so this is incorrect.
[itex] \begin{align}<br /> &= \sqrt{1-x^2}\\<br /> &= \sqrt{r^2-r^2\cos^2{\theta}}\\<br /> &= r\sqrt{1-\cos^2{\theta}}\\<br /> &= r\sin{\theta}<br /> \end{align}<br /> <br /> [/itex]

In the integrand ##r## varies throughout the circular region. But think about how ##r,\theta## vary to cover a circle. It is the limiting values that go in the limits. You have already figured out that ##\theta## must go from ##0\rightarrow 2\pi##. Now if you start at the origin and move in any particular ##\theta## direction, what are the lower and higher limits ##r## will take?
 
r would go from 0 to 1.
so the equation would be [itex]\int_0^{2\pi} \int_0^1 (e^{-r^2})rdrd\theta[/itex]?
 
notorious_lx said:
r would go from 0 to 1.
so the equation would be [itex]\int_0^{2\pi} \int_0^1 (e^{-r^2})rdrd\theta[/itex]?

Yes. Not only is that correct, it is easier eh?
 

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