johnson12
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Hello,I need some advice on a problem.
Let f,g:R\rightarrow R (where R denotes the real numbers) be two continuous functions, assume that f(x) < g(x) \forall x \neq 0 ,
and f(0) = g(0).Define A = \left\{(x,y)\neq (0,0): y< f(x),x \in R\right\}<br />
B = \left\{(x,y)\neq (0,0): y> g(x),x \in R\right\}<br />Let r,s:R^{2}\rightarrow R be C^{1},and show that there is a C^{1} function h defined on
R^{2}- \left\{(0,0)\right\} such that h(x,y) = r(x,y) on A and h(x,y) = s(x,y) on B.
It seems that this follows from partitions of unity, but I am not sure where to
start, any suggestions at all are helpful.
Thanks.
Let f,g:R\rightarrow R (where R denotes the real numbers) be two continuous functions, assume that f(x) < g(x) \forall x \neq 0 ,
and f(0) = g(0).Define A = \left\{(x,y)\neq (0,0): y< f(x),x \in R\right\}<br />
B = \left\{(x,y)\neq (0,0): y> g(x),x \in R\right\}<br />Let r,s:R^{2}\rightarrow R be C^{1},and show that there is a C^{1} function h defined on
R^{2}- \left\{(0,0)\right\} such that h(x,y) = r(x,y) on A and h(x,y) = s(x,y) on B.
It seems that this follows from partitions of unity, but I am not sure where to
start, any suggestions at all are helpful.
Thanks.
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