sardonic
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Homework Statement
If f(x,y,z) = 0, then you can think of z as a function of x and y, or z(x,y). y can also be thought of as a function of x and z, or y(z,x)
Therefore:
dz= \frac{\partial z}{\partial x}dx + \frac{\partial z}{\partial y} dy
and
dy= \frac{\partial y}{\partial x}dx + \frac{\partial y}{\partial z} dz
Show that
1= \frac{\partial z}{\partial y} \frac{\partial y}{\partial z}
and then
-1= \frac{\partial x}{\partial z} \frac{\partial y}{\partial x}\frac{\partial z}{\partial y}
Homework Equations
The Attempt at a Solution
Substituting dy into the dz equation you get
dz = \frac{\partial z}{\partial x}dx + \frac{\partial z}{\partial y} \frac{\partial y}{\partial x}dx + \frac{\partial y}{\partial z}\frac{\partial z}{\partial y}dz
This can be rearranged to show
dz (1-\frac{\partial z}{\partial y}\frac{\partial y}{\partial z}) = dx(\frac{\partial z}{\partial x}+\frac{\partial z}{\partial y}\frac{\partial y}{\partial x})
and then
(1-\frac{\partial z}{\partial y}\frac{\partial y}{\partial z}) = \frac{dx}{dz}(\frac{\partial z}{\partial x}+\frac{\partial z}{\partial y}\frac{\partial y}{\partial x})
In order to show that \frac{\partial z}{\partial y}\frac{\partial y}{\partial z} = 1, I only need to show that (\frac{\partial z}{\partial x}+\frac{\partial z}{\partial y}\frac{\partial y}{\partial x})=0, but I'm not sure how to do that. As for the second equation, I'm not sure where to get a \frac{\partial x}{\partial z} into the equation in the first place.