Finding the Limit of cos(pi*x / sinx)

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around finding the limit of the expression cos(πx / sin(x)) as x approaches 0, which falls under the subject area of calculus, specifically limits and continuity.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the use of continuity of the cosine function and the limit properties. There are discussions about whether to apply the quotient rule or to rely on known limits, particularly the limit of sin(x)/x as x approaches 0.

Discussion Status

Participants have provided insights into the continuity of the cosine function and the relevance of the limit of sin(x)/x. There is an ongoing exploration of different approaches, with some participants questioning the necessity of certain methods while others clarify misunderstandings.

Contextual Notes

Some participants express uncertainty about the application of derivative rules and the implications of using the quotient rule, indicating a need for clarity on these concepts. The discussion reflects a mix of understanding and confusion regarding limit evaluation techniques.

Oneiromancy
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Find the limit.

limit x -> 0 cos(pi*x / sinx)

I'm only in cal I. I was hoping I wouldn't have to use the difference quotient so is there an easier way to do this using derivative rules or something?
 
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lim_{x\rightarrow 0} cosf(x) =cos (lim_{x\rightarrow 0} f(x))
 
\lim_{x\rightarrow 0}\cos{\left(\frac{\pi x}{\sin x}\right)}

Yes?
 
rocophysics said:
\lim_{x\rightarrow 0}\cos{\left(\frac{\pi x}{\sin x}\right)}

Yes?

Yeah this is what he meant, i guess. And follow rock.freak667's advice. But remember that this is true only because cos is continuous for any real.
lim_{x\rightarrow 0} cosf(x) =cos (lim_{x\rightarrow 0} f(x))
Now can you see the trick after you go inside the cosine function with the limit?
 
Right.

Can I just use the quotient rule on the inside?
 
well you do not need to use the quotient rule, because do you know what the limit of

sin(x)/x is as x--->0

lim(x-->0)(sin(x))/x ----?
Just use this fact and you will be fine, because if you use the quotient rule as you are claimint to, you will get an intermediate form of 0/0.
 
This would be x / sin x in this case. You got it backwards.
 
Oneiromancy said:
This would be x / sin x in this case. You got it backwards.

NO, i did not get it backwards, because if you know what lim(x-->0)(sin(x))/x ----?
is you will not have problem finding out what
lim(x-->0)x/sinx is, since you will take its reciprocal and everything will turn into terms of sin(x)/x
 
Oh, sorry, calm down lol. It's 1.
 
  • #10
\lim_{x\rightarrow 0}\cos{\left(\frac{\pi x}{\sin x}\right)}=\cos{(\lim_{x\rightarrow 0}\left\frac{\pi}{\frac{\sin x}{\ x}\right)}}
do u see now what to do?
 
  • #11
Ya thanks it's -1.
 
  • #12
Oneiromancy said:
Ya thanks it's -1.

Good job!
 

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