Finding the Wavefunction for Tunneling,with tunnel lenght L

AI Thread Summary
The discussion focuses on finding the wavefunction for a particle tunneling through a potential barrier defined in three regions. The general solution for the wavefunction in region I is given, while in region II, the correct form is debated, particularly why the term involving \(D\) vanishes. The participants clarify that for tunneling, the potential difference leads to a scenario where the wavefunction must reflect continuity at boundaries, affecting the coefficients \(A\), \(B\), \(C\), \(D\), and \(E\). The importance of the energy of the particle relative to the potential barrier is emphasized, as it determines the nature of the wavefunction—either oscillatory or exponentially decaying. The conversation concludes with a consensus on the need for continuity equations to relate the amplitudes for accurate calculations of tunneling probabilities.
Arman777
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Homework Statement


Let us suppose we have a particle with energy ##E## and ##E<U## and the potential defined as

##U(x)=0## for ##x<0## (I)

##U(x)=U## for ##0<x<L## (II)

##U(x)=U_0## for ##x>L## (III)

In this case ##E>U_0## and ##U>U_0##

Homework Equations


$$HΨ=EΨ$$

The Attempt at a Solution


[/B]
I find the general form of solution, which it is

##Ψ(x)=Ae^{βx}+Be^{-βx}## for ##β^2=2m(U(x)-E)/\hbar^2##

For region (I) I find that

##Ψ_1(x)=c_1sin(\frac {\sqrt{2mE}} {\hbar}x)+c_2sin(\frac {\sqrt{2mE}} {\hbar}x)##

For region (II)

##Ψ(x)=De^{\beta x}+Ee^{-\beta x}## for ##\beta=\frac {\sqrt{2m(U-E)}}{\hbar}##

Is this true ? Because in the site of the hyperphysics it says it should be,

##Ψ(x)=Ee^{-\beta x}## for ##\beta=\frac {\sqrt{2m(U-E)}}{\hbar}##

I am not sure how we can derive this mathematically ? Why the

##De^{\beta x}## term vanishes ?

http://hyperphysics.phy-astr.gsu.edu/hbase/quantum/barr.html

For the region (III)

I find that

##Ψ(x)=Ge^{iαx}## for ##α=\sqrt{2m(E-U_0)}/ {\hbar}##

So ##D=0## or not ? If so why its 0 ?

If ##U(x)=U##, ##x>L## then it was logical thing to say that ##D=0##, but ##U## is just for some distance.
 
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Arman777 said:
If U(x)=UU(x)=UU(x)=U, x>Lx>Lx>L then it was logical thing to say that D=0D=0D=0, but UUU is just for some distance.

If one is dealing with tunneling - in your situation if U(0) is less than U; effectively a barrier of height ( U - U(0) ) = V is effective and only with the condition of E < V one has to explore the tunneling process.

for calculating the tunneling probability one needs the amplitudes A and E,
the coefficients/amplitudes are A, B, C, D., E, F In The three regions

if the wave/particle is incident from left B=0 and C, D, will survive as reflection from the barrier wall and E will survive,

one can see the following reference-
<https://pdfs.semanticscholar.org/61f0/15a4466eda8a25bce28e766ffd60edd3d934.pdf>
 
drvrm said:
If one is dealing with tunneling - in your situation if U(0) is less than U; effectively a barrier of height ( U - U(0) ) = V is effective and only with the condition of E < V one has to explore the tunneling process.
This helpmed me a lot actually. I was so confused about the process of it and how to deal with it. Thanks a lot.

drvrm said:
if the wave/particle is incident from left B=0 and C, D, will survive as reflection from the barrier wall and E will survive,
I did not understand this part. If you are talking about the article then why B should be zero its the incident wave and it should have reflective parts ?

In the article it says nothing about the D and E ( In terms of my description)

I still didnt understand..
 
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Arman777 said:
I did not understand this part. If you are talking about the article then why B should be zero it is the incident wave and it should have reflective parts?

Actually, B will not be zero, you are right I might have made the omission as I was focussing on A and E.thanks lot
 
I am confused about something. You said that I can take ##V=U-U_0## in this case the potential for the second and third region is ##V## or only for the third region its ##V##.

And in the first region ##U=0## definately right?

I guess its ## U(x) = 0 (I), U(II),V(III)## But I can't be sure.
 
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Arman777 said:
I am confused about something. You said that I can take V=U−U0V=U−U0V=U-U_0 in this case the potential for the second and third region is VVV or only for the third region its VVV.
 
I am looking at the tunneling process

you are right that first region has potential zero-
If one takes a potential V which is a barrier of height (U - U(0)) then for particle energy E which is less than V has a quantum probability of tunneling. the base potential is U(0) in the third region and E is greater than U(0) but less than U.

the nature of the solution is well known inside the barrier of length L or outside the barrier- as a standard solutions of Schrodinger equation.

the solution does depend on the value of E relative to the height of the barrier and only two types of wave functions either exponential decay or oscillatory is available with continuity at the boundary.
the continuity equations further relate the amplitudes and thus determines the transmission or reflection at the boundary.
 
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