Finding x(t) from a time dependant force

  • Thread starter Thread starter Keshroom
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Force Time
AI Thread Summary
To find the position function x(t) from the time-dependent force F(t) = ma0e-bt, the discussion emphasizes starting with Newton's second law, F = ma. The integration of the force leads to the velocity function v(t) = v0 - (a0/b)e-bt, and subsequently, the position function is derived as x(t) = (a0/b^2)e-bt, assuming initial conditions x0 and v0 are both zero. Participants clarify the integration process and ensure the solution meets initial conditions. The conversation highlights the importance of understanding the relationships between force, mass, acceleration, and the integration steps required to derive position from force.
Keshroom
Messages
25
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement


A particle of mass m is subject to a force
F(t) = mae-bt

The initial position and speed are zero. Find x(t)

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution



how would i begin to start this??
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
yeah...

this is what i tried

F(t) = m(dv/dt) e-bt

F(t)ebtdt = mdv

∫F(t)ebtdt = ∫mdv (with bounds t=0 to t=t, and v=0 to v=v)

∫F(t)ebtdt = mv (only integrating right side yields)

∫F(t)ebtdt = m(dx/dt)

[∫F(t)ebtdt]dt = dx (integrating both sides again)

∫ [∫F(t)ebtdt]dt = x(t)

is this correct? can it be simplified further?
 
Keshroom said:
A particle of mass m is subject to a force
F(t) = mae-bt
Keshroom said:
F(t) = m(dv/dt) e-bt

You mean "a" is the acceleration?

No, that makes no sense.

If F(t) is the force, and m is the mass, then F(t) = ma,

so F(t) cannot be mae-bt. :redface:

What exactly was the question? :confused:
 
I think I get it:

F(t)=ma(t) in which a(t)=a0e-bt

If you integrate you get:

v(t)=v0-(a0/b)e-bt

And again:

x(t)=x0+v0t+(a0/b2)e-bt

Since x0 and v0 are both zero.

x(t)=(a0/b2)e-bt
 
tiny-tim said:
You mean "a" is the acceleration?

No, that makes no sense.

If F(t) is the force, and m is the mass, then F(t) = ma,

so F(t) cannot be mae-bt. :redface:

What exactly was the question? :confused:

touche sir. That does not make sense. ahh i see now

Question was F(t) = ma0e-bt
now i know why it is a0

so in this case acceleration a = a0e-bt

but I'm still stuck! How do i get to x(t)?
 
Mathoholic! said:
I think I get it:

F(t)=ma(t) in which a(t)=a0e-bt

If you integrate you get:

v(t)=v0-(a0/b)e-bt

And again:

x(t)=x0+v0t+(a0/b2)e-bt

Since x0 and v0 are both zero.

x(t)=(a0/b2)e-bt

wait..you can just integrate like that without the dt on the right hand side?
 
Last edited:
Keshroom said:
wait..you can just integrate like that without the dt on the right hand side?

I simply skipped the integration steps :-p
 
Mathoholic! said:
I simply skipped the integration steps :-p

alright ill take your word for it!
 
  • #10
Mathoholic! said:
I think I get it:

F(t)=ma(t) in which a(t)=a0e-bt

If you integrate you get:

v(t)=v0-(a0/b)e-bt

And again:

x(t)=x0+v0t+(a0/b2)e-bt

Since x0 and v0 are both zero.

x(t)=(a0/b2)e-bt

Please do not do the student's homework for them. That is against the PF rules.
 
  • #11
berkeman said:
Please do not do the student's homework for them. That is against the PF rules.

I'm sorry, I let myself go :shy:
It won't happen again :approve:
 
  • #12
haha yeah stop doing my homework for me!

Ok i figured it out properly

F(t) = ma0e-bt

m(dv/dt) = ma0e-bt

∫mdv = ∫ma0e-btdt (from v=0 to v=v and t=0 to t=t)

mv = m(a0e-bt)/-b

(dx/dt) = (a0e-bt)/-b

∫dx = ∫(a0e-bt)/-b dt (from x=0 to x=x and t=0 to t=t)

x(t) = a0e-bt/b2
 
  • #13
Hi Keshroom! :smile:

Yes, that's fine except for the constants. :wink:

When you got down to here …
Keshroom said:
F(t) = ma0e-bt

m(dv/dt) = ma0e-bt

∫mdv = ∫ma0e-btdt (from v=0 to v=v and t=0 to t=t)

mv = m(a0e-bt)/-b

… although you said "from … t=0 to t=t", you didn't do it! :rolleyes:

(to put it another way: always check your solutions just by looking at them … does this satisfy the initial condition of v = 0 ? :wink:)

Try again. :smile:
 
Back
Top