windy miller
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I have heard there is a flaw in Godels proof ? For example the claim here:
https://www.jamesrmeyer.com/pdfs/FFGIT_Meyer.pdf
Is this accepted by other mathematicians or is it a fringe view ?
https://www.jamesrmeyer.com/pdfs/FFGIT_Meyer.pdf
Is this accepted by other mathematicians or is it a fringe view ?