Force converted to acceleration?

  • Thread starter Thread starter chris_topher
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Acceleration Force
AI Thread Summary
To convert force measured by a load cell into acceleration, one must understand the relationship defined by Newton's second law, F=ma. Force is expressed in Newtons, while acceleration is in meters per second squared (m/s²). The sensitivity of the load cell can be calculated in picoCoulombs per meter (pC/m), but this requires knowing the net force applied. Without the net force, direct conversion to acceleration is not feasible. Understanding these fundamental differences is crucial for accurate calculations.
chris_topher
Messages
1
Reaction score
0
How can I convert force on a load cell, tension and compression to acceleration!

I think maybe something along the lines of Newtons and picoCoulombs per meter or maybe I am miles off the mark

I need to work out the sensitivity of the load cell in pC/m
 
Physics news on Phys.org
chris_topher said:
How can I convert force on a load cell, tension and compression to acceleration!

I think maybe something along the lines of Newtons and picoCoulombs per meter or maybe I am miles off the mark

I need to work out the sensitivity of the load cell in pC/m

You can't. Force and acceleration are different units. Force is Newton. Acceleration is "distance per time square" or more correctly "rate of change in velocity".
1 Newton or Unit Force = 1 kg m/s2
Unit acceleration = 1 m/s2 .
 
If you had the net force, you could use F=ma and solve for acceleration.
 
Hi there, im studying nanoscience at the university in Basel. Today I looked at the topic of intertial and non-inertial reference frames and the existence of fictitious forces. I understand that you call forces real in physics if they appear in interplay. Meaning that a force is real when there is the "actio" partner to the "reactio" partner. If this condition is not satisfied the force is not real. I also understand that if you specifically look at non-inertial reference frames you can...
I have recently been really interested in the derivation of Hamiltons Principle. On my research I found that with the term ##m \cdot \frac{d}{dt} (\frac{dr}{dt} \cdot \delta r) = 0## (1) one may derivate ##\delta \int (T - V) dt = 0## (2). The derivation itself I understood quiet good, but what I don't understand is where the equation (1) came from, because in my research it was just given and not derived from anywhere. Does anybody know where (1) comes from or why from it the...
Back
Top