-friction Is Independant Of Surface Area-

AI Thread Summary
Friction is independent of surface area because it primarily depends on the nature of the surfaces in contact and the normal force acting between them. In rolling motion, friction converts translational kinetic energy into rotational energy without energy loss, while sliding results in kinetic energy being lost as heat due to friction doing work on the sliding object. The particle in contact with the surface during rolling is momentarily at rest, meaning friction does no work and does not change the system's kinetic energy. Conversely, in sliding, the contact point has a non-zero velocity, allowing friction to perform work and dissipate energy. Understanding these principles clarifies why rolling is more efficient than sliding.
arunk8186
Messages
6
Reaction score
0
----friction Is Independant Of Surface Area------

>> can anyone tel y friction is independant of surface area/length ...

thx an regards,

arun
 
Physics news on Phys.org
thank u sir ...to rephrase my question to get a still better explnation (wit regard to myself) ...

>> why is rolling better than sliding ??

thx and regards,

arun
 
Rolling is better than sliding, because in rolling, friction merely CONVERTS translational kinetic energy into rotational energy without net energy loss, wheres in sliding, the object loses kinetic energy.
 
thank u sir,
my question is why does while sliding ,kinetic energy is lost as (friction) heat energy...why not while rollin?

thanks and regards,

arun
 
Let S be a system of N particles, and let \vec{F}_{i} be the net force acting upon the i'th particle.
The system's S rate of change of kinetic energy equals the sum of the particles' rates of change of kinetic energy.
Thus, if K_{i} is the kinetic energy of the i'th particle, the rate of change is:
\frac{dK_{i}}{dt}=\frac{d}{dt}(\frac{m_{i}\vec{v}_{i}^{2}}{2})=m_{i}\vec{a}_{i}\cdot\vec{v}_{i}=\vec{F}_{i}\cdot\vec{v}_{i}
where \vec{v}_{i},\vec{a}_{i},m_{i} is the i'th particle's velocity, acceleration and mass, respectively.

Now, the frictional force acting upon an object (or system S) acts upon the the "particle" directly in contact with the ground. Since the particle at the contact point is MOMENTARILY AT REST, its velocity is 0, and hence, the frictional force acting upon it cannot change its OR THE REST OF THE SYSTEM's kinetic energy! Otherwise stated, in rolling, friction does NO WORK.

In sliding, however, the particle at the contact point has a non-zero velocity, and hence, the friction force does non-zero work on the particle, and hence on the system as well.
 
The rope is tied into the person (the load of 200 pounds) and the rope goes up from the person to a fixed pulley and back down to his hands. He hauls the rope to suspend himself in the air. What is the mechanical advantage of the system? The person will indeed only have to lift half of his body weight (roughly 100 pounds) because he now lessened the load by that same amount. This APPEARS to be a 2:1 because he can hold himself with half the force, but my question is: is that mechanical...
Hello everyone, Consider the problem in which a car is told to travel at 30 km/h for L kilometers and then at 60 km/h for another L kilometers. Next, you are asked to determine the average speed. My question is: although we know that the average speed in this case is the harmonic mean of the two speeds, is it also possible to state that the average speed over this 2L-kilometer stretch can be obtained as a weighted average of the two speeds? Best regards, DaTario
Some physics textbook writer told me that Newton's first law applies only on bodies that feel no interactions at all. He said that if a body is on rest or moves in constant velocity, there is no external force acting on it. But I have heard another form of the law that says the net force acting on a body must be zero. This means there is interactions involved after all. So which one is correct?
Back
Top