Fuel paradox arising from Galilean transformation?

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SeniorGara
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TL;DR
Does the fuel paradox arise when the same engine operates with different power in different frames of reference?
I have encountered a problem related to the Galilean Transformation. Let's consider two observers who will be referred to as ##O## and ##O^{'}##, with their corresponding coordinates ##(t,x,y,z)## and ##(t^{′},x^{′},y^{′},z^{'})## respectively. They are initially at the same location, at time zero. Furthermore, observer ##O^{'}## moves away from observer ##O## as shown in the picture.
geogebra-export.png


Any point ##P## that does not move in relation to ##O## will be described by ##O^{'}## with the following equations: $$x_{P}'=x_{P}-vt,\quad{y'_{P}=y_{P},}\quad{z'_{P}=z_{P},}\quad{t'=t}.$$ If an object (for example a car) moves in relation to ##O## according to the equation $$x(t)=vt+\frac{1}{2}at^2,$$ ##O'## will describe this movement in the following way: $$x'(t)=x(t)-vt=\frac{1}{2}at^2.$$ Assuming that no resistance force is present, the resultant force is equal to the force of engine thrust. Of course, ##F=F'=ma## because ##\ddot{x}(t)=\ddot{x'}(t)=a##. Observer ##O## claims that the work done by the force of engine thrust is equal to $$W(t)=F\cdot{x(t)}=ma\left(vt+\frac{1}{2}at^2\right)=mavt+\frac{1}{2}ma^2t^2\mathrm{,}$$ whereas ##O'## observes that the engine has performed work equal to $$W'(t)=F'\cdot{x'(t)}=ma\left(\frac{1}{2}at^2\right)=\frac{1}{2}ma^2t^2.$$ Thus, ##O## concludes that the engine is operating at power $$P(t)=\frac{dW}{dt}(t)=mav+ma^2t,$$ while ##O'## considers that the engine power is equal to $$P'(t)=\frac{dW'}{dt}(t)=ma^2t.$$ Here is my question: If the same engine works with different power in two frames of reference, wouldn't it lead to the "fuel paradox"? In other words, according to ##O##, the fuel will be depleted faster than according to ##O'##. Of course, it can't be true. So, where is the mistake?
 
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SeniorGara said:
In other words, according to ##O##, the fuel will be depleted faster than according to ##O'##. Of course, it can't be true. So, where is the mistake?
What about the work being done on the exhaust stream? [Always the answer in this flavor of paradox]
 
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Notice that momentum is not conserved in your example, so you don't have a closed system and energy is slipping out unaccounted for. Account for the reactive acceleration of the Earth and you will find your missing energy.

Edit: scooped by mere seconds!
 
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You don't need anything as elaborate as your calculations. If a ##2 \ kg## object increases its velocity from ##0## to ##1 \ m/s## in one frame, then it gains ##1J## of energy. But, in a frame where it changes from ##1## to ##2 \ m/s## it gains ##3J## of energy. This gives the same potential paradox when considerihg the energy supply.
 
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PeroK said:
You don't need anything as elaborate as your calculations. If a ##2 \ kg## object increases its velocity from ##0## to ##1 \ m/s## in one frame, then it gains ##1J## of energy. But, in a frame where it changes from ##1## to ##2 \ m/s## it gains ##3J## of energy. This gives the same potential paradox when considerihg the energy supply.
To carry this scenario through, let us consider that this ##2 \text{ kg}## object gets its velocity increment by pushing off at ##1 \text{ m/s}## from an equally massive object. Our object moves off to the right at ##+1 \text{ m/s}## and the other object moves off to the left at ##-1 \text{ m/s}##.

In the original rest frame of the two objects, that is ##2J## of total energy increment, ##1J## for each.

In a frame where the two objects start at ##1 \text{m/s}##, that is ##-1J## for the left hand object and ##+3J## for the right hand object. The total is ##2J##. Same as before.

The change in mechanical energy is invariant under a Galilean transformation to a new inertial frame. Also under a Lorentz transform as it turns out, though the formula for mechanical energy needs to be corrected for that to work.
 
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