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How could I show that a representation D is fully reducible if and only if for every invariant subspace V_{1} \in V then also V_{1}^{T} (meaning orthogonal to V1) is also invariant?
http://www.crystallography.fr/mathcryst/pdf/nancy2010/Souvignier_irrep_syllabus.pdf
(Lemma 1.6.4)
in fact I don't understand the inaffected scalar product it mentions...
http://www.crystallography.fr/mathcryst/pdf/nancy2010/Souvignier_irrep_syllabus.pdf
(Lemma 1.6.4)
in fact I don't understand the inaffected scalar product it mentions...
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