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I am reading Joseph J.Rotman's book, A First Course in Abstract Algebra.
I am currently focused on Section 3.5 From Polynomials to Numbers
I need help with the statement and meaning of Corollary 3.58
The relevant section of Rotman's text reads as follows:https://www.physicsforums.com/attachments/4547In the above text (in the statement of the Corollary) we read the following:
" ... ... (ii) Every two polynomials $$f(x)$$ and $$g(x)$$ have a unique gcd. ... ... "
My question (which some may regard as pedantic :) ) is as follows:
Does Rotman actually mean ...
" (ii) Every two polynomials $$f(x)$$ and $$g(x)$$ have a unique monic gcd. ... ... "
Can someone please confirm that my interpretation is correct?
Peter
I am currently focused on Section 3.5 From Polynomials to Numbers
I need help with the statement and meaning of Corollary 3.58
The relevant section of Rotman's text reads as follows:https://www.physicsforums.com/attachments/4547In the above text (in the statement of the Corollary) we read the following:
" ... ... (ii) Every two polynomials $$f(x)$$ and $$g(x)$$ have a unique gcd. ... ... "
My question (which some may regard as pedantic :) ) is as follows:
Does Rotman actually mean ...
" (ii) Every two polynomials $$f(x)$$ and $$g(x)$$ have a unique monic gcd. ... ... "
Can someone please confirm that my interpretation is correct?
Peter