Geom. Challenge: Prove $(1-\cos A)(1-\cos B)(1-\cos C)\ge \cos A\cos B \cos C$

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the inequality $(1-\cos A)(1-\cos B)(1-\cos C)\ge \cos A\cos B \cos C$ for angles $A$, $B$, and $C$ of a triangle. The scope includes mathematical reasoning and potentially geometric approaches to the problem.

Discussion Character

  • Mathematical reasoning, Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • Post 1 presents the inequality as a challenge to be proven for angles of a triangle.
  • Post 2 reiterates the challenge, indicating a desire for solutions.
  • Post 3 includes a response that acknowledges a previous solution and invites further geometric approaches, suggesting an openness to multiple methods of proof.
  • Post 4 indicates that there are other solutions available, though specifics are not provided.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants appear to agree on the formulation of the problem, but there is no consensus on the proof or methods to approach the inequality, as multiple solutions and approaches are suggested.

Contextual Notes

The discussion does not clarify any assumptions or definitions that may be necessary for the proof, nor does it resolve any mathematical steps involved in the inequality.

Who May Find This Useful

Readers interested in mathematical inequalities, triangle geometry, or proof techniques may find this discussion relevant.

anemone
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Let $A,\,B$ and $C$ be three angles of a triangle $ABC$. Prove that

$(1-\cos A)(1-\cos B)(1-\cos C)\ge \cos A\cos B \cos C$
 
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anemone said:
Let $A,\,B$ and $C$ be three angles of a triangle $ABC$. Prove that

$(1-\cos A)(1-\cos B)(1-\cos C)\ge \cos A\cos B \cos C$

My solution:

Consider the objective function:

$$f(A,B,C)=\left(1-\cos(A)\right)\left(1-\cos(B)\right)\left(1-\cos(C)\right)-\cos(A)\cos(B)\cos(C)$$

Subject to the constraint:

$$g(A,B,C)=A+B+C-\pi=0$$ where $$0<A,B,C<\pi$$

Now, by cyclic symmetry, we see that the extremum occurs for:

$$A=B=C=\frac{\pi}{3}$$

And we then find:

$$f\left(\frac{\pi}{3},\frac{\pi}{3},\frac{\pi}{3}\right)=\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^3-\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^3=0$$

To show this extremum is a minimum, let's choose another point on the constraint:

$$(A,B,C)=\left(\frac{\pi}{2},\frac{\pi}{4},\frac{\pi}{4}\right)$$

And we find:

$$f\left(\frac{\pi}{2},\frac{\pi}{4},\frac{\pi}{4}\right)=\frac{1}{2}-0=\frac{1}{2}>0$$

Hence, we may conclude:

$$f_{\min}=f\left(\frac{\pi}{3},\frac{\pi}{3},\frac{\pi}{3}\right)=0$$

And thus, the inequality is confirmed.
 
MarkFL said:
My solution:

Consider the objective function:

$$f(A,B,C)=\left(1-\cos(A)\right)\left(1-\cos(B)\right)\left(1-\cos(C)\right)-\cos(A)\cos(B)\cos(C)$$

Subject to the constraint:

$$g(A,B,C)=A+B+C-\pi=0$$ where $$0<A,B,C<\pi$$

Now, by cyclic symmetry, we see that the extremum occurs for:

$$A=B=C=\frac{\pi}{3}$$

And we then find:

$$f\left(\frac{\pi}{3},\frac{\pi}{3},\frac{\pi}{3}\right)=\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^3-\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^3=0$$

To show this extremum is a minimum, let's choose another point on the constraint:

$$(A,B,C)=\left(\frac{\pi}{2},\frac{\pi}{4},\frac{\pi}{4}\right)$$

And we find:

$$f\left(\frac{\pi}{2},\frac{\pi}{4},\frac{\pi}{4}\right)=\frac{1}{2}-0=\frac{1}{2}>0$$

Hence, we may conclude:

$$f_{\min}=f\left(\frac{\pi}{3},\frac{\pi}{3},\frac{\pi}{3}\right)=0$$

And thus, the inequality is confirmed.

Very well done, MarkFL!:)

I still welcome those who have a thing for geometry approach to tackle this challenge!
 
Solution of other:

If the triangle $ABC$ is an obtuse triangle, then we're done.

If the triangle $ABC$ is acute, then we see that we have:

$$\prod_{}^{}\cos A\le \prod_{}^{} (1-\cos A)$$ which gives

$$\prod_{}^{}\cos A(1+\cos A)\le \prod_{}^{} (1-\cos^2 A)$$

$$\prod_{}^{}\cos A(1+2\cos^2 \frac{A}{2}-1)\le \prod_{}^{} \sin^2 A$$

$$8\prod_{}^{}\cos A(\cos^2 \frac{A}{2})\le \prod_{}^{} \sin^2 A$$

$$8\cos A\cos B\cos C\cos^2 \frac{A}{2}\cos^2 \frac{B}{2}\cos^2 \frac{C}{2}\le \sin^2 A \sin^2 B \sin^2 C$$

$$8\cos A\cos B\cos C\cos^2 \frac{A}{2}\cos^2 \frac{B}{2}\cos^2 \frac{C}{2}\le \sin A \sin B \sin C \left(2\sin \frac{A}{2} \cos \frac{A}{2}\right)\left(2\sin \frac{B}{2} \cos \frac{B}{2}\right)\left(2\sin \frac{C}{2} \cos \frac{C}{2}\right)$$

$$\prod_{}^{}\cot \frac{A}{2}\le \prod_{}^{} \tan A$$

$$\implies \sum_{}^{} \cot \frac{A}{2}\le \sum_{}^{} \tan A$$ which is certainly true.

Therefore we can conclude by now that our assumption is correct and we've proved that

$(1-\cos A)(1-\cos B)(1-\cos C)\ge \cos A\cos B \cos C$.
 

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