Geom. Challenge: Prove $(1-\cos A)(1-\cos B)(1-\cos C)\ge \cos A\cos B \cos C$

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SUMMARY

The inequality $(1-\cos A)(1-\cos B)(1-\cos C) \ge \cos A \cos B \cos C$ holds true for any triangle with angles $A$, $B$, and $C$. This conclusion was reached through various geometric approaches discussed in the forum, with contributions from users such as MarkFL. The discussion emphasizes the importance of understanding trigonometric identities and properties of triangles in proving this inequality.

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Let $A,\,B$ and $C$ be three angles of a triangle $ABC$. Prove that

$(1-\cos A)(1-\cos B)(1-\cos C)\ge \cos A\cos B \cos C$
 
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anemone said:
Let $A,\,B$ and $C$ be three angles of a triangle $ABC$. Prove that

$(1-\cos A)(1-\cos B)(1-\cos C)\ge \cos A\cos B \cos C$

My solution:

Consider the objective function:

$$f(A,B,C)=\left(1-\cos(A)\right)\left(1-\cos(B)\right)\left(1-\cos(C)\right)-\cos(A)\cos(B)\cos(C)$$

Subject to the constraint:

$$g(A,B,C)=A+B+C-\pi=0$$ where $$0<A,B,C<\pi$$

Now, by cyclic symmetry, we see that the extremum occurs for:

$$A=B=C=\frac{\pi}{3}$$

And we then find:

$$f\left(\frac{\pi}{3},\frac{\pi}{3},\frac{\pi}{3}\right)=\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^3-\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^3=0$$

To show this extremum is a minimum, let's choose another point on the constraint:

$$(A,B,C)=\left(\frac{\pi}{2},\frac{\pi}{4},\frac{\pi}{4}\right)$$

And we find:

$$f\left(\frac{\pi}{2},\frac{\pi}{4},\frac{\pi}{4}\right)=\frac{1}{2}-0=\frac{1}{2}>0$$

Hence, we may conclude:

$$f_{\min}=f\left(\frac{\pi}{3},\frac{\pi}{3},\frac{\pi}{3}\right)=0$$

And thus, the inequality is confirmed.
 
MarkFL said:
My solution:

Consider the objective function:

$$f(A,B,C)=\left(1-\cos(A)\right)\left(1-\cos(B)\right)\left(1-\cos(C)\right)-\cos(A)\cos(B)\cos(C)$$

Subject to the constraint:

$$g(A,B,C)=A+B+C-\pi=0$$ where $$0<A,B,C<\pi$$

Now, by cyclic symmetry, we see that the extremum occurs for:

$$A=B=C=\frac{\pi}{3}$$

And we then find:

$$f\left(\frac{\pi}{3},\frac{\pi}{3},\frac{\pi}{3}\right)=\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^3-\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^3=0$$

To show this extremum is a minimum, let's choose another point on the constraint:

$$(A,B,C)=\left(\frac{\pi}{2},\frac{\pi}{4},\frac{\pi}{4}\right)$$

And we find:

$$f\left(\frac{\pi}{2},\frac{\pi}{4},\frac{\pi}{4}\right)=\frac{1}{2}-0=\frac{1}{2}>0$$

Hence, we may conclude:

$$f_{\min}=f\left(\frac{\pi}{3},\frac{\pi}{3},\frac{\pi}{3}\right)=0$$

And thus, the inequality is confirmed.

Very well done, MarkFL!:)

I still welcome those who have a thing for geometry approach to tackle this challenge!
 
Solution of other:

If the triangle $ABC$ is an obtuse triangle, then we're done.

If the triangle $ABC$ is acute, then we see that we have:

$$\prod_{}^{}\cos A\le \prod_{}^{} (1-\cos A)$$ which gives

$$\prod_{}^{}\cos A(1+\cos A)\le \prod_{}^{} (1-\cos^2 A)$$

$$\prod_{}^{}\cos A(1+2\cos^2 \frac{A}{2}-1)\le \prod_{}^{} \sin^2 A$$

$$8\prod_{}^{}\cos A(\cos^2 \frac{A}{2})\le \prod_{}^{} \sin^2 A$$

$$8\cos A\cos B\cos C\cos^2 \frac{A}{2}\cos^2 \frac{B}{2}\cos^2 \frac{C}{2}\le \sin^2 A \sin^2 B \sin^2 C$$

$$8\cos A\cos B\cos C\cos^2 \frac{A}{2}\cos^2 \frac{B}{2}\cos^2 \frac{C}{2}\le \sin A \sin B \sin C \left(2\sin \frac{A}{2} \cos \frac{A}{2}\right)\left(2\sin \frac{B}{2} \cos \frac{B}{2}\right)\left(2\sin \frac{C}{2} \cos \frac{C}{2}\right)$$

$$\prod_{}^{}\cot \frac{A}{2}\le \prod_{}^{} \tan A$$

$$\implies \sum_{}^{} \cot \frac{A}{2}\le \sum_{}^{} \tan A$$ which is certainly true.

Therefore we can conclude by now that our assumption is correct and we've proved that

$(1-\cos A)(1-\cos B)(1-\cos C)\ge \cos A\cos B \cos C$.
 

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