matt grime said:
Why is it obvious that a formal system (containing the natural numbers) must be consistent, or complete (why can't it be neither?) ...
If a formal system is not consistent, then it is complete.
[A & no(A)] implies B (whatever B)
matt grime said:
... and that it is not possible to be both?
This is precisely Godel's theorem. I say "any demonstration is obvious once you know how to demonstrate it". I claim that mathematics are obvious. The reason for that, the reason why mathematics are so easy compared to physics, is that in mathematics, one knows what one is talking about. There are definitions. In physics, we can only applies clever ideas to model reality.
I actually went through Godel's demonstration. Several times.

It's technical, but one can understand every single step.
Now one can understand Godel's argument without understanding the technical demonstration. Actually, I would probably never have undestood the technical part of it, without the first section of the article, where he explains the "lier paradox" thing. Even though, of course, I had already heard it somewhere else, would it just be in the beginning of my book where Godel's article is reprinted.
In my previous post where I quote Delahaye's 1994 book, I think I clearly showed that many very respectable mathematicians dare saying they don't care about Godel's theorem. So I personnaly forgive Marlon for making fun of it. I thought he was joking, that's all. Besides, he and I are physicists. I talk for myself, but I am just here to learn, so I want people to correct me whenever I post something wrong.