sambo
- 17
- 0
Got the theorem, having trouble with the proof... [SOLVED]
Hi all. OK, so I am trying to prove a theorem that I have for some time been just using as-is. Long story short, it occurred to me that I needed to prove it. So, I have almost done it, but am stuck near the end. The theorem is:
Suppose \mathcal{X} is a smooth vector field on a manifold \mathcal{M}. Assuming that \mathcal{X}_p\neq0 at a point p\in\mathcal{M}, then there exists a coordinate neighborhood \left(\mathcal{W};w^i\right) about p such that
<br /> \left.\mathcal{X}\right\vert_\mathcal{W}=\dfrac{\partial}{\partial w^1}<br />
Proof: ?
Now, it's not that I have nothing for the proof, it's just that I'm stuck. As well, since there is more than one way to skin a cat, I figured it would be better to leave the proof empty, rather than potentially confuse anyone with the technique I have employed thus far.
That said, a big thanks in advance for all the help!
Hi all. OK, so I am trying to prove a theorem that I have for some time been just using as-is. Long story short, it occurred to me that I needed to prove it. So, I have almost done it, but am stuck near the end. The theorem is:
Suppose \mathcal{X} is a smooth vector field on a manifold \mathcal{M}. Assuming that \mathcal{X}_p\neq0 at a point p\in\mathcal{M}, then there exists a coordinate neighborhood \left(\mathcal{W};w^i\right) about p such that
<br /> \left.\mathcal{X}\right\vert_\mathcal{W}=\dfrac{\partial}{\partial w^1}<br />
Proof: ?
Now, it's not that I have nothing for the proof, it's just that I'm stuck. As well, since there is more than one way to skin a cat, I figured it would be better to leave the proof empty, rather than potentially confuse anyone with the technique I have employed thus far.
That said, a big thanks in advance for all the help!
Last edited: