Kreizhn
- 714
- 1
Hopefully this is a simple enough question.
Let (M,g) be a matrix Riemannian manifold and f: M \to \mathbb R a smooth function. Take p \in M and let \{ X_1,\ldots, X_n \} be a local orthonormal frame for a neighbourhood of p. We can define a gradient of f in a neighbourhood of p as
\nabla f = \sum_{i=1}^n X_i f X_i
Now in my situation, I'm actually trying to compute this is a local coordinate system. Let \{ x^{jk} \} be a local coordinate system and write X_i = a_i^{jk} \frac{\partial}{\partial x^{jk}}. Then our gradient, evaluated at (for simplicity) p becomes
\begin{align*}<br /> (\nabla f)_p &= \sum_{i=1}^n \underbrace{\left( a_i^{jk} \left.\frac{\partial}{\partial x^{jk}}\right|_p \right)}_{X_i} f \underbrace{\left(a_i^{mn} \left.\frac{\partial}{\partial x^{jk}}\right|_p\right)}_{X_i} \\<br /> &= \sum_{i=1}^n a_i^{jk} a_i^{mn} \frac{\partial f}{\partial x^{jk}}(p) \left.\frac{\partial}{\partial x^{jk}}\right|_p<br /> \end{align*}<br />
Now we know that (X_i f)(p) = X_i(p) f \in \mathbb R if we use the derivation definition of tangent vectors. But this term simply corresponds to
a_i^{jk} \frac{\partial f}{\partial x^{jk}}(p) \in \mathbb R
Now here is my problem. Let's take M = U(N) the unitary group of dimension N, and f(p) = \text{tr}[y^\dagger p]\text{tr}[p^\dagger y ]
for some y \in U(N). We know that f(p) \in \mathbb R since \langle y,p \rangle = \text{tr}[y^\dagger p ] is just the Hilbert-Schmidt inner-product, so f(p) is nothing more that f(p) = |\langle y,p \rangle|^2.. But when I compute the terms
a_i^{jk} \frac{\partial f}{\partial x^{jk}}(p)
I get values in \mathbb C. In fact, I can't see any reason why this HAS to be in \mathbb R. Did I just make a silly mistake?
Let (M,g) be a matrix Riemannian manifold and f: M \to \mathbb R a smooth function. Take p \in M and let \{ X_1,\ldots, X_n \} be a local orthonormal frame for a neighbourhood of p. We can define a gradient of f in a neighbourhood of p as
\nabla f = \sum_{i=1}^n X_i f X_i
Now in my situation, I'm actually trying to compute this is a local coordinate system. Let \{ x^{jk} \} be a local coordinate system and write X_i = a_i^{jk} \frac{\partial}{\partial x^{jk}}. Then our gradient, evaluated at (for simplicity) p becomes
\begin{align*}<br /> (\nabla f)_p &= \sum_{i=1}^n \underbrace{\left( a_i^{jk} \left.\frac{\partial}{\partial x^{jk}}\right|_p \right)}_{X_i} f \underbrace{\left(a_i^{mn} \left.\frac{\partial}{\partial x^{jk}}\right|_p\right)}_{X_i} \\<br /> &= \sum_{i=1}^n a_i^{jk} a_i^{mn} \frac{\partial f}{\partial x^{jk}}(p) \left.\frac{\partial}{\partial x^{jk}}\right|_p<br /> \end{align*}<br />
Now we know that (X_i f)(p) = X_i(p) f \in \mathbb R if we use the derivation definition of tangent vectors. But this term simply corresponds to
a_i^{jk} \frac{\partial f}{\partial x^{jk}}(p) \in \mathbb R
Now here is my problem. Let's take M = U(N) the unitary group of dimension N, and f(p) = \text{tr}[y^\dagger p]\text{tr}[p^\dagger y ]
for some y \in U(N). We know that f(p) \in \mathbb R since \langle y,p \rangle = \text{tr}[y^\dagger p ] is just the Hilbert-Schmidt inner-product, so f(p) is nothing more that f(p) = |\langle y,p \rangle|^2.. But when I compute the terms
a_i^{jk} \frac{\partial f}{\partial x^{jk}}(p)
I get values in \mathbb C. In fact, I can't see any reason why this HAS to be in \mathbb R. Did I just make a silly mistake?