ojbway
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I recently watched a video by SpaceRip on YouTube addressing whether or not the Universe is infinite. They mentioned an example as to why it isn't briefly, but didn't expand on it. I kept thinking that its a good reason and I want your opinion on it.
Since Newton's law of universal gravition follows the equation F = G * (m1m2)/r2 (force = gravitational constant times the mass of the two bodies divided by the distance squared, then that means that your gravitational pull is affecting every object in the universe, no matter how far away, and the same for every object in the universe on you.
So, if the universe was infinite, and from that we assume there is an infinite amount of matter to fill an infinite universe, then that would mean that F is infinite. If F is infinite, then the equation F = ma (force = mass times acceleration) becomes a little wonky I think.
One opposing argument that may come up is that there is infinite force in all directions, therefore the net force would be zero? I'm no expert in infinity math, and I know that some relationships between two constants would not be the same for two infinities. So that statement is most likely flawed, but even if not, my argument is that we know that portions of the universe, say our solar system, does not have an equal distribution of matter in all directions. And furthermore, that distribution changes all the time, with orbits and whatnot.
My overarching question is: is this a good reason why the universe could be stated as finite?
I'm but a humble 11th grade in 12th grade honors physics taught by none other than Mr. Newman, but he did teach me Newton's law of universal gravitation. This just makes sense in my mind. I'm leaving for the night. I hope that when I come back, all you bright minds (no sarcasm intended) will shed some light on this topic. Thanks! :D
Since Newton's law of universal gravition follows the equation F = G * (m1m2)/r2 (force = gravitational constant times the mass of the two bodies divided by the distance squared, then that means that your gravitational pull is affecting every object in the universe, no matter how far away, and the same for every object in the universe on you.
So, if the universe was infinite, and from that we assume there is an infinite amount of matter to fill an infinite universe, then that would mean that F is infinite. If F is infinite, then the equation F = ma (force = mass times acceleration) becomes a little wonky I think.
One opposing argument that may come up is that there is infinite force in all directions, therefore the net force would be zero? I'm no expert in infinity math, and I know that some relationships between two constants would not be the same for two infinities. So that statement is most likely flawed, but even if not, my argument is that we know that portions of the universe, say our solar system, does not have an equal distribution of matter in all directions. And furthermore, that distribution changes all the time, with orbits and whatnot.
My overarching question is: is this a good reason why the universe could be stated as finite?
I'm but a humble 11th grade in 12th grade honors physics taught by none other than Mr. Newman, but he did teach me Newton's law of universal gravitation. This just makes sense in my mind. I'm leaving for the night. I hope that when I come back, all you bright minds (no sarcasm intended) will shed some light on this topic. Thanks! :D