Gravity as a particle-based force vs space-time warping

In summary, gravitational waves are a predicted result of the theory of gravity, and while they have not yet been observed, there is indirect evidence that they may exist. While the speed of cause and effect would apply to the graviton-based concept, why should this limit apply to space-time warping? This is due to the former being a movement of space-time itself, which is not limited by the speed of light. The key implications of this are that the theories of gravity as a particle-based force vs a space-time warp can be reconciled, and that there is no limit to the speed of change in the universe.
  • #1
Cobalt101
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I'm interested to understand the interpretation of gravity as a result of exchange of force particles (ie gravitons) vs General Relativity-based warping of space-time. Related to this is while a constraint to speed of cause and effect would apply to the graviton-based concept, why should this limit apply to space-time warping ? Re this latter point, I understand that while gravitational waves have been postulated there is yet no evidence of them (in fact recent 2014 findings appear now to have been caused by interstellar dust. So I think my question can be distilled down to how can the theories of gravity as a particle-based force vs a space-time warp be reconciled, and what are the key implications of this ?
 
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  • #2
Cobalt101 said:
why should this limit apply to space-time warping ?
In the same way it applies to all fields - there is nothing that transmits changes of the field faster than the speed of light.
Cobalt101 said:
Re this latter point, I understand that while gravitational waves have been postulated there is yet no evidence of them
There is indirect evidence - not from BICEP2, but from observations of orbiting pulsars where they lose energy well in agreement with the predicted emission of gravitational waves.
Gravitational waves appear in both approaches, in the same way as light can be described with classical electromagnetic fields or quantized (where the concept of photons appears).
 
  • #3
Gravitational waves have not been postulated any more than EM waves were. Rather they were, like EM waves, predicted as the result of the theory. As the theory in question is both highly consistent and otherwise very successful, this gives them quite another level of plausibility than a mere postulate. I don't think many physicists were surprised when the pulsar result matched the predictions.
 
  • #4
Cobalt101 said:
I'm interested to understand the interpretation of gravity as a result of exchange of force particles (ie gravitons) vs General Relativity-based warping of space-time. Related to this is while a constraint to speed of cause and effect would apply to the graviton-based concept, why should this limit apply to space-time warping ? Re this latter point, I understand that while gravitational waves have been postulated there is yet no evidence of them (in fact recent 2014 findings appear now to have been caused by interstellar dust. So I think my question can be distilled down to how can the theories of gravity as a particle-based force vs a space-time warp be reconciled, and what are the key implications of this ?

You should read this:

http://physics.aps.org/synopsis-for/10.1103/PhysRevLett.114.061301

Zz.
 
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  • #5
mfb said:
In the same way it applies to all fields - there is nothing that transmits changes of the field faster than the speed of light.
There is indirect evidence - not from BICEP2, but from observations of orbiting pulsars where they lose energy well in agreement with the predicted emission of gravitational waves.
Gravitational waves appear in both approaches, in the same way as light can be described with classical electromagnetic fields or quantized (where the concept of photons appears).
My question why the limit would not apply to the gravitational (as opposed to eg electromagnetic) field theory (as opposed to graviton particle force theory) is due to the former being a movement of space-time itself, which is not limited by c. (This concept as I understand has been explored/utilised in the Alcubierre metric). So if one views graviity as a bending/movement of space-time itself why is the speed of impact of gravity constrained by c ?
 
  • #6
Cobalt101 said:
My question why the limit would not apply to the gravitational (as opposed to eg electromagnetic) field theory
But it would!
Cobalt101 said:
is due to the former being a movement of space-time itself, which is not limited by c
Distance changes between distant objects are not limited by c, but all local processes are.
 
  • #7
@Cobalt101

Graviton is a quantum/fluctuation of the curvature of spacetime, a ripple ON TOP of the spacetime. However the background spacetime curvature itself results from a condensate or coherent state of a enormous number of gravitons, not few isolated ripples...this coherent state is so tightly correlated that individual graviton loses its identity and is part of something enormous, i.e. curved spacetime. I hope the distinction is clear. It is the difference between classicl EM field between plates of a parallel plate capacitor and isolated photons. Recall bosons have the tendency to gather together into a phase coherent lump in which the individual boson loses its identity and the lump as whole is a single macroscopic entity, called a condensate.
 

1. What is the difference between gravity as a particle-based force and space-time warping?

Gravity as a particle-based force is based on the concept of gravitons, which are hypothetical particles that mediate the force of gravity between objects. On the other hand, space-time warping is a theory proposed by Albert Einstein, which suggests that gravity is the result of the curvature of space and time caused by massive objects.

2. Which theory is currently accepted by the scientific community?

Both theories have evidence to support them, but currently, the theory of space-time warping is the most widely accepted by the scientific community. It is the basis of Einstein's theory of general relativity, which has been extensively tested and has accurately predicted many observations.

3. How does the concept of gravitons fit into the theory of particle physics?

Gravitons are proposed to be a part of the Standard Model of particle physics, which is the current framework for understanding the fundamental particles and forces of the universe. However, the existence of gravitons has not been confirmed experimentally, and their role in the Standard Model is still being studied.

4. Can both theories coexist?

Yes, it is possible for both theories to coexist. In fact, many scientists believe that both theories may be describing different aspects of the same phenomenon. Some theories, such as string theory, attempt to unify the two theories and provide a more comprehensive understanding of gravity.

5. How does the understanding of gravity as a particle-based force or space-time warping affect our daily lives?

In our daily lives, the understanding of gravity allows us to make accurate predictions and calculations, such as determining the trajectory of a satellite or the force needed to launch a rocket. However, the concept of space-time warping may have a more significant impact on advanced technologies, such as GPS systems, which rely on precise measurements of time and space to function accurately.

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