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I know this is getting really ridiculous but I have yet another question on Lagrangians...
This is our Lagrangian:
<br /> L=\frac{1}{2}m\dot{\vec{x}}^{2}+e\vec{A}.\dot{\vec {x}}<br />
Using the fact that:
\vec P= \frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot{\vec{x}}}=m \dot{\vec{x}} + e\vec A
and substituting P for \dot{\vec{x}} *
We get this Hamiltonian:
H=\frac{1}{2m}(\vec P - e\vec A )^2
(From * \dot{\vec{x}} = \frac{1}{m}(\vec P - e\vec A ), so presumably, the above Hamiltonian is equal to \frac{m}{2} \dot{\vec{x}}^2)
The question is to find the Equations of Motion in the Hamiltonian Formalism, ie. we need to determine \dot{\vec{x}} and \dot{P}_i:
We know \dot{\vec{x}} = \frac{1}{m}(\vec P - e\vec A ) from above.
Now:
\dot{P}_i = \frac{\partial H}{\partial x^i} = \frac{1}{2m}\frac{\partial [(\vec P - e\vec A )^2]}{\partial x^i} = \frac{m}{2}\frac{\partial [(\dot{\vec{x}} ^2]}{\partial x^i}=0
HOWEVER the answer seems to be this:
\dot{P}_i = \frac{e}{m}(P-eA)_j \epsilon_{jki} B_k
Can someone please explain, why P_dot is non zero?
Thanks...
This is our Lagrangian:
<br /> L=\frac{1}{2}m\dot{\vec{x}}^{2}+e\vec{A}.\dot{\vec {x}}<br />
Using the fact that:
\vec P= \frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot{\vec{x}}}=m \dot{\vec{x}} + e\vec A
and substituting P for \dot{\vec{x}} *
We get this Hamiltonian:
H=\frac{1}{2m}(\vec P - e\vec A )^2
(From * \dot{\vec{x}} = \frac{1}{m}(\vec P - e\vec A ), so presumably, the above Hamiltonian is equal to \frac{m}{2} \dot{\vec{x}}^2)
The question is to find the Equations of Motion in the Hamiltonian Formalism, ie. we need to determine \dot{\vec{x}} and \dot{P}_i:
We know \dot{\vec{x}} = \frac{1}{m}(\vec P - e\vec A ) from above.
Now:
\dot{P}_i = \frac{\partial H}{\partial x^i} = \frac{1}{2m}\frac{\partial [(\vec P - e\vec A )^2]}{\partial x^i} = \frac{m}{2}\frac{\partial [(\dot{\vec{x}} ^2]}{\partial x^i}=0
HOWEVER the answer seems to be this:
\dot{P}_i = \frac{e}{m}(P-eA)_j \epsilon_{jki} B_k
Can someone please explain, why P_dot is non zero?
Thanks...