- #1
billiards
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- 16
Homework Statement
Derive that:
[tex]\left[r\frac{\partial\overline{f}}{\partial r}\right]}^{r=R}_{r=0}=0[/tex]
Homework Equations
I have taken the Laplacian [tex]\nabla^{2}f=0[/tex] for a disk in cylindrical co-ordinates and have found that:
[tex]\int^{R}_{0}\int^{2\pi}_{0} \left[\frac{\partial}{\partial r}(r\frac{\partial f}{\partial r})\right] d\varphi dr=0[/tex]
And the definition of the average of the function around the circle of radius r is provided:
[tex]\overline{f}(r)\equiv\frac{1}{2\pi}\int^{2\pi}_{0}f(r,\varphi)d\varphi[/tex]
The Attempt at a Solution
This ones seems to have me stumped.
I've tried setting
[tex]\int^{2\pi}_{0} \left[\frac{\partial}{\partial r}(r\frac{\partial f}{\partial r})\right] d\varphi = \int^{2\pi}_{0}f(r,\varphi)d\varphi = 2\pi\overline{f}(r)[/tex]
But that didn't seem to be fruitful.
I've tried expanding
[tex]\left[\frac{\partial}{\partial r}(r\frac{\partial f}{\partial r})\right]d\varphi = \frac{\partial f}{\partial r}d\varphi + r\frac{\partial^{2} f}{\partial r^{2}}d\varphi [/tex]
That looks a little bit like a Taylor series but I don't know what to do with it. I've been playing around with the algebra but can't seem to find my break through.