Solution: Solving Harmonic Oscillation Differential Equation

Runei
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Hello,

When I have the differential equation

\frac{dY(x)}{dx} = -k^2 Y(x)

The solution is of course harmonic oscillation, however, looking at various places I see the solution given as:
Y(x) = A cos(kx) + B sin(kx)
instead of
Y(x) = A cos(kx + \phi_1) + B sin(kx + \phi_2)

Isnt Equation 2 a more general solution than Equation 1? Or is there some reasoning (probably is) to make the phase angles go away?

Thank you.
 
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The general solution to a second order differential equation has 2 arbitrary coefficients, so you can't have a "more general solution" than ##A \cos kx + B \sin kx##.

For your second solution, you have ##\cos(kx + \phi_1) = \cos\phi_1\cos kx - \sin\phi_1\sin kx##, and a similar expression for ##\sin(kx + \phi_2)##, so you can rewrite the whole expression as ##P\cos kx + Q\sin kx##, where ##P## and ##Q## are constants containing ##A##, ##B##, and ##\cos## and ##\sin## of ##\phi_1## and ##\phi_2##. That is the same as your first solution.

Note, ##A\cos(kx + \phi)## or ##A\sin(kx + \phi)## are both general solutions (with two arbitrary constants), and those forms are sometimes nicer to use than ##A \cos kx + B \sin kx##.
 
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Thank you AlephZero!

As a side-note then, if I wanted to rewrite the solution in terms of complex exponentials, that the solution would be

Y(x) = A \cdot e^{ikx} + A^*\cdot e^{-ikx}

Where the constant A this time is complex.
 
Runei said:
Hello,

When I have the differential equation

\frac{dY(x)}{dx} = -k^2 Y(x)

The solution is of course harmonic oscillation, however, looking at various places I see the solution given as:

Isnt Equation 2 a more general solution than Equation 1? Or is there some reasoning (probably is) to make the phase angles go away?

Thank you.
I suppose that the equation is \frac{d^2Y(x)}{dx^2} = -k^2 Y(x)
The two equations :
Y(x) = A cos(kx) + B sin(kx)\\<br /> Y(x) = A cos(kx + \phi_1) + B sin(kx + \phi_2)
are equivalent :
A cos(kx + \phi_1) + B sin(kx + \phi_2) = A&#039; cos(kx) + B&#039; sin(kx)\\<br /> A&#039; =A cos(\phi_1)+B sin(\phi_2)\\<br /> B&#039; =-A sin(\phi_1)+B cos(\phi_2)
 
Runei said:
Thank you AlephZero!

As a side-note then, if I wanted to rewrite the solution in terms of complex exponentials, that the solution would be

Y(x) = A \cdot e^{ikx} + A^*\cdot e^{-ikx}

Where the constant A this time is complex.

There is no mathematical reason why the solution has to be real, so you could just write
Y(x) = A \cdot e^{ikx} + B\cdot e^{-ikx}
where ##A## and ##B## are complex constants.

In this case, both the real and imaginary parts of ##Y(x)## satisfy the differential equation.
You can interpret the real part of ##Y(x)## as a physical displacement, and the real part of ##dY(x)/dx## as a physical velocity, etc.
 
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