MHB Heine-Borel Theorem - Proof - Rudin Theorem 2.41

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The discussion centers on understanding the proof of the Heine-Borel Theorem as presented in Walter Rudin's "Principles of Mathematical Analysis." The main point of confusion is how Rudin concludes that the set of points \( S \) has no limit points in \( \mathbb{R}^k \). A key argument is that if \( S \) had a limit point, it would imply the existence of a convergent subsequence, but since the points \( x_n \) are unbounded (with \( |x_n| > n \)), no subsequence can converge. The clarification emphasizes that the lack of limit points arises from the unbounded nature of the sequence, which prevents any convergent behavior. This highlights the importance of understanding the relationship between limit points and subsequences in topology.
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I am reading Walter Rudin's book, Principles of Mathematical Analysis.

Currently I am studying Chapter 2:"Basic Topology".

Although I can basically follow it, I am concerned that I do not fully understand the proof of Theorem 2.41 (Heine-Borel Theorem).

Rudin, Theorem 2.41 reads as follows:View attachment 3795
View attachment 3796

In the above proof we read:

" ... It remains to be shown that (c) implies (a).

If $$E$$ is not bounded, then $$E$$ contains points $$x_n$$ with

$$| x_n | \gt n$$ $$ \ \ \ \ \ $$ $$(n = 1,2,3, ... )$$.

The set $$S$$ consisting of these points $$x_n$$ is infinite and clearly has no limit point in $$R^k$$, hence has none in $$E$$. ... ... "

I cannot see how Rudin concludes that the set $$S$$ "clearly" has no limit point in $$R^k$$ ... ...

Can someone explain exactly why this is the case ... what is the formal and rigorous argument?

PeterNOTE: I apologise to MHB members for the fact that a Mac Taskbar appears in the image above ... ... I have no idea how that happened!
 
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Peter said:
I am reading Walter Rudin's book, Principles of Mathematical Analysis.

Currently I am studying Chapter 2:"Basic Topology".

Although I can basically follow it, I am concerned that I do not fully understand the proof of Theorem 2.41 (Heine-Borel Theorem).

Rudin, Theorem 2.41 reads as follows:In the above proof we read:

" ... It remains to be shown that (c) implies (a).

If $$E$$ is not bounded, then $$E$$ contains points $$x_n$$ with

$$| x_n | \gt n$$ $$ \ \ \ \ \ $$ $$(n = 1,2,3, ... )$$.

The set $$S$$ consisting of these points $$x_n$$ is infinite and clearly has no limit point in $$R^k$$, hence has none in $$E$$. ... ... "

I cannot see how Rudin concludes that the set $$S$$ "clearly" has no limit point in $$R^k$$ ... ...
Can someone explain exactly why this is the case ... what is the formal and rigorous argument?

PeterNOTE: I apologise to MHB members for the fact that a Mac Taskbar appears in the image above ... ... I have no idea how that happened!
I have just reflected on the question in my above post ... I suspect that the answer is obvious ... my thoughts follow ... ...
We have $$S = \{ x_n \}$$ ...

Now, if some $$x_n$$ is a limit point of $$S$$, then every neighbourhood of $$x_n$$ must contain a point $$y \ne x_n$$ such that $$y \in S$$.

But the neighbourhood $$N_{1/2}(x_n)$$ consisting of points $$y \in S$$ such that $$d(x_n, y) \lt 1/2$$ contains no points except $$x_n$$ ... ...

So ... ... no $$x_n \in S$$ is a limit point of $$S$$ in $$R^k$$ ...
Can someone critique my analysis above and either confirm that the analysis is correct and/or point out any errors or shortcomings ...

Peter
 
You haven't proven that $S$ contains no limit point in $\Bbb R^k$. Even so, how do you know that $N_{1/2}(x_n)$ contains no point other than $x_n$? In your argument, you never used the fact that $|x_n| > n$ for all $n \in \Bbb Z^+$.

Now, if $S := \{x_n : n\in \Bbb Z^+\}$, then $S$ contains no limit point in $\Bbb R^k$ because $(x_n)$ has no convergent subsequence. Indeed, if $S$ had a limit point, then that point would be a limit of a subsequence $(x_{n_k})$ of $x_n$, which implies $(x_{n_k})$ is convergent. However, since $|x_n| > n$ for all $n$, for every subsequence $(x_{m_j})$ of $(x_n)$, $|x_{n_j}| > n_j \ge j$ for all $j$. This implies that every subsequence of $(x_{n_j})$ is unbounded, and consequently $x_n$ has no convergent subsequence. Therefore, $S$ has no limit point in $\Bbb R^k$.
 
Euge said:
You haven't proven that $S$ contains no limit point in $\Bbb R^k$. Even so, how do you know that $N_{1/2}(x_n)$ contains no point other than $x_n$? In your argument, you never used the fact that $|x_n| > n$ for all $n \in \Bbb Z^+$.

Now, if $S := \{x_n : n\in \Bbb Z^+\}$, then $S$ contains no limit point in $\Bbb R^k$ because $(x_n)$ has no convergent subsequence. Indeed, if $S$ had a limit point, then that point would be a limit of a subsequence $(x_{n_k})$ of $x_n$, which implies $(x_{n_k})$ is convergent. However, since $|x_n| > n$ for all $n$, for every subsequence $(x_{m_j})$ of $(x_n)$, $|x_{n_j}| > n_j \ge j$ for all $j$. This implies that every subsequence of $(x_{n_j})$ is unbounded, and consequently $x_n$ has no convergent subsequence. Therefore, $S$ has no limit point in $\Bbb R^k$.
Thanks for your help, Euge.

By way of explanation (for some inexplicable reason! (Doh) ), I read Rudin's proof as saying that $$|x_n| = 1$$ and from there convinced myself that this meant that for each n, the open ball $$N_{1/2}(x_n)$$ would contain only $$x_n$$ ... ... and thus $$\{ x_n \}$$ would contain no limit points ... ... silly!

I am currently searching analysis texts to find theorems involving limit points and subsequences ... looks like you are saying there is a theorem that says that if a sequence has a limit point then it must be the limit of a subsequence of the sequence ...

Well, definitely sounds true, intuitively anyway ... just cannot find such a result in Rudin, Apostol or Pugh ...

But anyway, can follow your logic ...

Thanks again for your help,

PeterNOTE: I think Rudin must have had in mind a different/alternative argument from one involving subsequences since this proof is in Ch. 2: Basic Topology ... while the text deals with sequences and subsequences in Ch. 3: Numerical Sequences and Series ...
 
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The "theorem" that you think I'm using is based off of the method of induction. Using the definition of a limit point of a sequence, you (inductively) extract a subsequence. Sequence extraction is something you have done several times when dealing with Noetherian rings and modules. With more practice, you will get a firmer grasp of the concept.
 
Euge said:
The "theorem" that you think I'm using is based off of the method of induction. Using the definition of a limit point of a sequence, you (inductively) extract a subsequence. Sequence extraction is something you have done several times when dealing with Noetherian rings and modules. With more practice, you will get a firmer grasp of the concept.
Thanks Euge ... always appreciate your guidance and help ...

Peter
 
We all know the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold uses open sets and homeomorphisms onto the image as open set in ##\mathbb R^n##. It should be possible to reformulate the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold using closed sets on the manifold's topology and on ##\mathbb R^n## ? I'm positive for this. Perhaps the definition of smooth manifold would be problematic, though.

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