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I am stuck at a proof and do not even have an idea where to start and how to start:
Let X and Y be sets, and let f : X → Y be a surjection. Prove that there is an injection g : Y → X such that f (g(y)) = y for every y ∈ Y.
Could you please show me a way?
Let X and Y be sets, and let f : X → Y be a surjection. Prove that there is an injection g : Y → X such that f (g(y)) = y for every y ∈ Y.
Could you please show me a way?