Help me analyze the situation of torque

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The discussion centers on the confusion regarding the textbook conclusion that the net internal torque equals zero, akin to Newton's third law. The user questions how torque, defined as r × F, can lead to this conclusion when considering internal forces F21 and F12. A key point raised is that the internal forces are assumed to act along the line of separation between particles, leading to a total moment that results in zero torque. The clarification emphasizes that since the vector difference r1 - r2 is parallel to the force F12, the total moment cancels out. This analysis helps resolve the user's uncertainty about the textbook's assertion.
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I have a confusion of a conclusion in the textbook ( I posted it in the attach file )

Net internal torque equals zero ( similarly to conclusion in the Newton’s third law ) but I myself reckon that torque is defined as
$rm{r \times F$
And maybe there occurs the case below :
$rm{F}}_{{\rm{21}}} {\rm{ = - F}}_{{\rm{12} $
But
$rm{r}}_{21} {\rm{F}}_{{\rm{21}}} \ne {\rm{r}}_{12} {\rm{ - F}}_{{\rm{12}$

Could someone help me analyze this situation , I think that the conclusion in textbook is true but it is still fuzzy for me
Thank you in advance
 

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I only try to post Latex but no success :(

again
I have a confusion of a conclusion in the textbook ( I posted it in the attach file )

Net internal torque equals zero ( similarly to conclusion in the Newton’s third law ) but I myself reckon that torque is defined as
${\rm{r \times F}}$
And maybe there occurs the case below :
${\rm{F}}_{{\rm{21}}} {\rm{ = - F}}_{{\rm{12}}} $
But
${\rm{r}}_{21} {\rm{F}}_{{\rm{21}}} \ne {\rm{r}}_{12} {\rm{ - F}}_{{\rm{12}}} $

Could someone help me analyze this situation , I think that the conclusion in textbook is true but it is still fuzzy for me
Thank you in advance
 
though I can't post Latex truly , i guess you would know my confusion , please answer me as soon as possible

thank you :)
 
You must use [tex*] and [*/tex] (with out the *) on your latex code.
 
welcome to pf!

hi tukms! welcome to pf! :smile:

(try using the X2 icon just above the Reply box :wink:)

the important point in your attachment is "we assume that these forces lie along the line of separation of each pair of particles" …

so if the internal forces are F12 and F21, at positions r1 and r2,

then the total moment (about any origin) is r1 x F12 + r2 x F21 = (r1 - r2) x F12

since r1 - r2 is parallel to F12, that comes to zero :wink:
 
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