- #1
jlmac2001
- 75
- 0
The question asks to prove the following by writing each sine and cosine function as a sum of exponentials of arguments inwt or imwt:
integral from -pi/w to pi/w (cos (nwt)cos(mwt) dt) = {0 for n not equal to m, pi/w for n=m not equal to 0 , 2pi/w for n=m=0
Would I write the cosine funtion in the exponential form e^x+e^-x/2 and then solve by using different valuse for n and w for the one the is equal to 0 when n is not equal to m? I'm confused.
integral from -pi/w to pi/w (cos (nwt)cos(mwt) dt) = {0 for n not equal to m, pi/w for n=m not equal to 0 , 2pi/w for n=m=0
Would I write the cosine funtion in the exponential form e^x+e^-x/2 and then solve by using different valuse for n and w for the one the is equal to 0 when n is not equal to m? I'm confused.