Help with algebraic manipulation of an inequality

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving an inequality involving real numbers and a parameter t, specifically showing that if x and y are real numbers with x < y, then x < ty + (1-t)x < y for all t in the interval (0, 1). The problem is situated within the context of algebraic manipulation and inequalities.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore algebraic manipulation techniques to transform the initial inequality into the desired form. Some suggest starting from the known relationship y > x and manipulating it with the parameter t. Others present their own attempts at the proof, questioning how to effectively apply algebraic steps.

Discussion Status

Several participants have shared their approaches to the problem, with one providing a detailed algebraic manipulation that appears to align with the goal of the proof. There is an ongoing exchange of ideas, and while no consensus has been reached, the discussion is progressing with various interpretations and methods being explored.

Contextual Notes

Participants are working under the constraints of proving the inequality without providing complete solutions, focusing on algebraic techniques and reasoning. The original poster has expressed difficulty in the manipulation process, indicating a need for further clarification and exploration of the topic.

pzzldstudent
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Let R denote the set of all real numbers and Q the set of all rational numbers.

Statement to prove:
If x and y are in R with x < y, show that x < ty + (1-t)x < y
for all t, 0 < t < 1.

My work on the proof so far:

Given x and y are real numbers with x < y. By theorem we know there exists an r in Q such that x < r < y. Take r = t. So x < t < y.

That's all I have so far.

My professor said this proof was more of algebraic manipulation. I am stuck as to how I can algebraically manipulate the inequality to get to x < ty + (1-t)x < y.
 
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ok , here it is what i think


since y>x=> y-x>0, now since 0<t<1, we have

0<t(y-x)<y-x add an x on both sides and we get

x<t(y-x)+x<y-x+x

x<ty-tx+x<y

x<ty+(1-t)x<y

what we actually need to show
 
If x<y then xt+x(1-t)<yt+x(1-t)<yt+y(1-t).
 
thanks for all the replies. i will try all these and reply back when I've gotten more work done on my own.

thank you very much!
 
sutupidmath said:
ok , here it is what i think


since y>x=> y-x>0, now since 0<t<1, we have

0<t(y-x)<y-x add an x on both sides and we get

x<t(y-x)+x<y-x+x

x<ty-tx+x<y

x<ty+(1-t)x<y

what we actually need to show

Awesome! Thank you very much.:smile: That was very clear. I totally understood it and get it now! :cool:
 

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