Help with Newtons 2nd applied to Rocketry

AI Thread Summary
Newton's second law defines force as the change in momentum over time, expressed as F = (m * V)2 - (m * V)1 / (t2 - t1). For constant mass, this simplifies to F = m * a, but tracking mass becomes complex with fluids, where mass flow rate (m dot) is crucial. The mass flow rate is calculated as m dot = density (r) times velocity (V) times area (A). The discussion raises questions about the clarity of the equation F = (m dot * V)e - (m dot * V)0 and whether it can be simplified to F = m dot(v2 - v1). Ultimately, the conversation emphasizes the importance of understanding momentum changes in fluid dynamics and the notation used in equations.
JPKelly
Messages
7
Reaction score
0
From Newton's second law of motion, we can define a force F to be the change in momentum of an object with a change in time. Momentum is the object's mass m times the velocity V. So, between two times t1 and t2, the force is given by:

F = ((m * V)2 - (m * V)1) / (t2 - t1)

If we keep the mass constant and just change the velocity with time we obtain the simple force equation - force equals mass time acceleration a

F = m * a

If we are dealing with a solid, keeping track of the mass is relatively easy; the molecules of a solid are closely bound to each other and a solid retains its shape. But if we are dealing with a fluid (liquid or gas) and particularly if we are dealing with a moving fluid, keeping track of the mass gets tricky. For a moving fluid, the important parameter is the mass flow rate. Mass flow rate is the amount of mass moving through a given plane over some amount of time. Its dimensions are mass/time (kg/sec, slug/sec, ...) and it is equal to the density r times the velocity V times the area A. Aerodynamicists denote this parameter as m dot (m with a little dot over the top).

m dot = r * V * A

Note: The "dot" notation is used a lot by mathematicians, scientists, and engineers as a symbol for "d/dt", which means the variable changes with a change in time. For example, we can write Newton's second law as either

F = d(mv)/dt or F = (mv)dot

So "m dot" is not simply the mass of the fluid, but is the mass flow rate, the mass per unit time.

Since the mass flow rate already contains the time dependence (mass/time), we can express the change in momentum across the propulsion device as the change in the mass flow rate times the velocity. We will denote the exit of the device as station "e" and the free stream as station "0". Then

F = (m dot * V)e - (m dot * V)0

This is a direct quote from nasa.gov. I understand everything up until the last equation.

Can it not be written like F = mdot(v2-v1) ?

Also, this equation F = d(mv)/dt is the same as this F = (m dot * V)e - (m dot * V)0 ? Or no?

I understand Mass x Velocity is momentum and they want the change in momentum but at the same time mass AND velocity are changing with respect to time.

I guess i don't understand why they wrote it like F = (m dot * V)e - (m dot * V)0 , including mdot twice.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
I think it is more clearer if we write

F = m(dv/dt) + v (dm/dt) = m*(v dot) + v (m dot)
 
The rope is tied into the person (the load of 200 pounds) and the rope goes up from the person to a fixed pulley and back down to his hands. He hauls the rope to suspend himself in the air. What is the mechanical advantage of the system? The person will indeed only have to lift half of his body weight (roughly 100 pounds) because he now lessened the load by that same amount. This APPEARS to be a 2:1 because he can hold himself with half the force, but my question is: is that mechanical...
Hello everyone, Consider the problem in which a car is told to travel at 30 km/h for L kilometers and then at 60 km/h for another L kilometers. Next, you are asked to determine the average speed. My question is: although we know that the average speed in this case is the harmonic mean of the two speeds, is it also possible to state that the average speed over this 2L-kilometer stretch can be obtained as a weighted average of the two speeds? Best regards, DaTario
Some physics textbook writer told me that Newton's first law applies only on bodies that feel no interactions at all. He said that if a body is on rest or moves in constant velocity, there is no external force acting on it. But I have heard another form of the law that says the net force acting on a body must be zero. This means there is interactions involved after all. So which one is correct?

Similar threads

Replies
0
Views
2K
Replies
2
Views
1K
Replies
3
Views
2K
Replies
3
Views
2K
Replies
14
Views
2K
Replies
30
Views
2K
Replies
27
Views
2K
Back
Top