Help with these two exam questions

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around two exam questions related to calculus: finding the derivative of the inverse function at a specific point and evaluating an integral. The first question involves the function f(x) = sqrt(x^3 + x^2 + x + 6), while the second question pertains to the integral of x/(x + 4) dx.

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  • Mixed

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the concept of derivatives of inverse functions and the application of the chain rule. There are attempts to clarify the transformation of the integral and its simplification. Some participants question the validity of certain transformations and the assumptions behind them.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with various interpretations and methods being proposed. Some participants provide insights into the derivative of the inverse function, while others express uncertainty about the approaches suggested. There is no explicit consensus on the correct methods or interpretations yet.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating through potential misunderstandings regarding the notation and definitions, particularly concerning the derivative of the inverse function and the manipulation of integrals. There is also mention of homework constraints that may limit the exploration of certain methods.

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I had these two questions in an exam and do not know how to find the answers...

find (f-1)'(3) for f(x) = sqrt (x^3 + x^2 + x + 6)

and

the int of x/(x + 4) dx


If anyone can get me started on these and show which steps I have to take, that would be great...
 
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I've got an idea about the first 1, but not 100% on it. I think that the derivative of a function is 1/the derivative of the inverse function, so just calculate the df/dx for x = 3, then the answer is the reciprocal of the number you get.

For the second question, ever thought about writing it as [itex]\int 1 dx - \int \frac{4}{x+4} dx[/itex] ?
 
Well, to begin with, how did you transform the integral into that? I triend doing y = (x +4), but it didn't work.
 
can you clarify what you meant for 1... You mean I should take the derivitative of that functiona and plug in 3 for x?
 
I assume that by (f-1) you mean the derivative of 1/f(x) (because if it were the inverse, the exercise would become quite messy and ugly). You can do this in two ways (three, actually):
a) Write [tex]1/\sqrt{\cdots} = (\cdots)^{-1/2}[/tex] and use the familiar rule.
b) Use the quotient rule
c) Use a rule for [tex]\frac{d(1/f(x))}{dx}[/tex] if you know it (otherwise you can derive it using b)
 
I don't really understand what is going on in 1 but 2 looks simple

[tex]\int \frac{x}{x+4} dx[/tex]

take [tex]\frac{x}{x+4} = \frac{x+4-4}{x+4} = \frac{x+4}{x+4} -\frac{4}{x+4} = 1-\frac{4}{x+4}[/tex]

so then

[tex]\int \frac{x}{x+4} dx = \int(1- \frac{4}{x+4}) dx[/tex]
 
I'm not entirely sure about the first part, but I think that if you find the derivative for f, then put 3 into the resulting equation, and then simply do (your answer)^-1 you will get the derivative of the function f^-1 at x = 3.

The second part, all I did was break the integral up. Is the following not true?
[tex]1 - \frac{4}{x+4} = \frac{x}{x+4}[/tex]
If it is, then the integral of one (with respect to x), must be the integral of the other (w.r.t x). I just transformed the integral by inspection, there isn't anything special going on there.
 
CompuChip said:
I assume that by (f-1) you mean the derivative of 1/f(x)

yer. I'm assuming he means the inverse of the function. It's not exactly clear.
 
ppyadof said:
I'm not entirely sure about the first part, but I think that if you find the derivative for f, then put 3 into the resulting equation, and then simply do (your answer)^-1 you will get the derivative of the function f^-1 at x = 3.

That is not true.
As a counterexample, consider
[tex]f(x) = x; g(x) = f(x)^{-1} = \frac{1}{x}[/tex].
Clearly, [itex]f'(x) = 1[/itex], so by your argument we should have [itex]g'(x) = 1 / f'(x) = 1 / 1 = 1[/itex] for all x.
But actually,
[tex]g'(x) = - \frac{1}{x^2}[/tex]
which is in general not equal to 1 (in fact, if x is real, it will never hold).

You really need the quotient rule or "power rule" (I don't know what it's called - if it has a name - I mean the rule dx^n/dx = n x^(n-1)) to find the derivative of 1/f(x).
 
  • #10
CompuChip said:
That is not true.
As a counterexample, consider
[tex]f(x) = x; g(x) = f(x)^{-1} = \frac{1}{x}[/tex].
Clearly, [itex]f'(x) = 1[/itex], so by your argument we should have [itex]g'(x) = 1 / f'(x) = 1 / 1 = 1[/itex] for all x.
But actually,
[tex]g'(x) = - \frac{1}{x^2}[/tex]
which is in general not equal to 1 (in fact, if x is real, it will never hold).

You really need the quotient rule or "power rule" (I don't know what it's called - if it has a name - I mean the rule dx^n/dx = n x^(n-1)) to find the derivative of 1/f(x).


I said that I wasn't sure about it - Thats my disclaimer :P
 
  • #11
I meant the derivative of the inverse of the function at 3... Thanks for the help with the second question - I can't believe they did that +4 -4 thing!

I would still like help with 1, though. The answer is supposed to be 1.
 
Last edited:
  • #12
[tex]\frac{d}{dx}f^{-1}(x)=\frac{1}{f^{'}(f^{-1}(x))}[/tex]

Does that help at all?
 
  • #13
honestly, no.
 

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