Does the Fourier Series of a Continuous Function Converge Uniformly?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the convergence properties of the Fourier series for a continuous function defined on the real line with a period of 1. The original poster seeks to understand whether the uniform convergence of the Fourier series can be assumed based solely on the continuity of the function, especially in light of a hint provided in the problem statement.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the relationship between the continuity of the function and the uniform convergence of its Fourier series. They reference conditions from a PDE book regarding the continuity of the function and its derivatives, as well as boundary conditions. Questions arise about the specific boundary conditions required and the context of Sturm-Liouville problems.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants questioning the assumptions about uniform convergence and exploring necessary and sufficient conditions for convergence of Fourier series. Some participants express uncertainty about the interpretation of hints and the relevance of Fourier series to the problem at hand.

Contextual Notes

There is a focus on the implications of continuity and additional conditions for uniform convergence, with references to specific mathematical contexts such as Sturm-Liouville theory. The original poster's interpretation of the hint and the applicability of Fourier series are also under consideration.

benorin
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So I'm working this HW problem, namely

Suppose f is a continuous function on \mathbb{R}, with period 1. Prove that

\lim_{N\rightarrow\infty} \frac{1}{N}\sum_{n=1}^{N} f(\alpha n) = \int_{0}^{1} f(t) dt

for every real irrational number \alpha.

The above is for context. The hint says to "Do it first for f(t)=\exp(2\pi ikt),k\in\mathbb{Z}," and I have done so. I supposed that the hint pointed to using the Fourier series for f. My question is: since f is continuous, may I assume that the Fourier series for f converges uniformly to f? [I recall something about the Gibbs phenomenon that made me ask.]
 
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My PDE book says that you may conclude that the Fourier series for f converges uniformly to f on [a,b] if:

1.) f, f', and f'' are all continuous on [a,b] and,
2.) f satisfies the boundary conditions.

So continuity of f alone is not sufficient to establish uniform convergence.
 
I agree with the main point of your post Tom. That is, that

Tom Mattson said:
continuity of f alone is not sufficient to establish uniform convergence.

But what boundary conditions are we talking about in condition 2. ?! Is this said in the context of the Sturm-Liouville equation that has cos(2\pi nx/(b-a)) and sin(2\pi nx/(b-a)) as its eigenfunctions? Namely, if f satisfies the same boundary conditions as the ones associated with the sturm-liouville equation that has cos(2\pi nx/(b-a)) and sin(2\pi nx/(b-a)) as a basis for its solutions, and satisfies condition 1., then the Fourier serie of f converges uniformly to f on [a,b].

What I said might not make perfect sense as I didn't do a lot of Sturm-Liouville, but I find it really fascinating.
 
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Specifically, what are necessary and sufficient conditions that the Fourier series for f:

i. actually converge to f ?

ii. be uniformly convergent ?

iii. both i and ii ?
 
Did I interpet the hint correctly then? (Or are Fourier series not the way to go?)
 
benorin said:
Specifically, what are necessary and sufficient conditions that the Fourier series for f:
i. actually converge to f ?
ii. be uniformly convergent ?
iii. both i and ii ?

I found it uncomfortable quoting myself, but... I did. Anyhow,

A sufficient condition for (ii) is... if f is a periodic entire function of period 2*pi, then the [usual] Fourier series for f converges uniformly on every horizontal strip containing the real axis.
 
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