How can friction make a car move, turn, and stop?

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jzz said:
...it is gravitational forces that are responsible for friction.
PeterDonis said:
Not necessarily. There has to be some normal force in order for there to be a friction force, yes. But the normal force doesn't have to be provided by gravity.
Drakkith said:
Not at all. Place your hands out in front of your like you're praying and them rub them vigorously. Friction without any need of gravitation.
In jzz's defense, it appears they were speciifically addressing the starting, stopping and turning of a vehicle, rasied by the OP, not generalized friction.

(My non-gravity example, before I realized this, was going to be screws, nails and knots; all of which would fall apart if not for friction.)
 
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PeterDonis said:
No, you are the one who made the claim, so you provide a reference that backs it up.
Guillame Amonton's Second law of friction:
The force of friction is independent of the apparent area of contact.
 
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jzz said:
Guillame Anton's Second law of friction:
The force of friction is independent of the apparent area of contact.
This isn't a reference, since there is no link or source given.
 
PeterDonis said:
This isn't a reference, since there is no link or source given.
I won't argue semantics with you, he is a historically well known and documented scientist.
 
jzz said:
I won't argue semantics with you
I'm not "arguing semantics". I'm telling you the PF rules for references, which you signed up to when you became a member.

jzz said:
he is a historically well known and documented scientist.
So what? You still need to give a specific link or source (as in, what book or paper, published where and when). You could be quoting (or claiming to quote) Einstein and you would still need to give a specific link or source.
 
PeterDonis said:
So what? You still need to give a specific link or source (as in, what book or paper, published where and when). You could be quoting (or claiming to quote) Einstein and you would still need to give a specific link or source.
That's a bit OTT, surely. I would quote you from my O level Physics book if I still had it. Would you want references to N1, N2 and N3 every time they're quoted? Are you really not familiar with the priniple?
 
PeterDonis said:
So what? You still need to give a specific link or source (as in, what book or paper, published where and when). You could be quoting (or claiming to quote) Einstein and you would still need to give a specific link or source.
Sorry, my bad. I didn't know that PF rules required a reference. Will a Wikipedia reference do as a reference?
 
sophiecentaur said:
Are you really not familiar with the priniple?
In an "I" level thread, it cannot be assumed that all thread participants would be familiar with it, no.

In any case, a specific named law was cited, which makes it a more specific claim than just the general principle. That would require a reference even if the general principle were common knowledge.
 
Your refernce does indeed include "Amontons' Second Law: The force of friction is independent of the apparent area of contact." but that doesn't make it true and in fact, taken as a stand-alone statement it is nonsense. As I pointed out earlier, it is ONLY true if the normal force per unit area remains unchanged. That "Second Law" needs to be paired with "Amontons' First Law: The force of friction is directly proportional to the applied load."
 
phinds said:
Your refernce does indeed include "Amontons' Second Law: The force of friction is independent of the apparent area of contact." but that doesn't make it true and in fact, taken as a stand-alone statement it is nonsense. As I pointed out earlier, it is ONLY true if the normal force per unit area remains unchanged. That "Second Law" needs to be paired with "Amontons' First Law: The force of friction is directly proportional to the applied load."
Point taken!
 
phinds said:
Your refernce does indeed include "Amontons' Second Law:
As well as Amontons' First Law and Couloumb's Law of Friction. Unfortunately, nothing in that section is footnoted so it is not clear where the statements of the laws that are given are coming from. This is one of the pitfalls of using Wikipedia as a reference; there are plenty of references given in the article, but which, if any, of them, contain those laws of friction and a discussion of their meaning and applicability? That's why I qualified my previous post about Wikipedia with "if it has appropriate sources cited". Those statements in the article linked to do not.
 
Amonton's law of friction is not a law of physics generating exact results. It is an engineering approximation that usually generates good approximate results. The coefficient of friction can vary with contact pressure.

See, for instance, https://www.nature.com/articles/s41598-023-29764-w

It is my understanding that high performance tire designers are well aware of this.
 
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jbriggs444 said:
Amonton's law of friction is not a law of physics generating exact results. It is an engineering approximation that usually generates good approximate results. The coefficient of friction can vary with contact pressure.

See, for instance, https://www.nature.com/articles/s41598-023-29764-w

It is my understanding that high performance tire designers are well aware of this.
It's one of those laws that we learned in school and it was counter-intuitive for a start. Then you read the 'proof' which involves the contact pressure remaining constant due to surface deformation. That sort of makes sense until you see racing cars and dragsters with slicks.

Finally, PF takes up the cudgel and we're chewing it over again.