MHB How can I simplify this integral using integration by parts?

  • Thread starter Thread starter ra_forever8
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Integration
AI Thread Summary
The integral I(x) is defined as I(x) = ∫₀² (1+t) e^(x cos[π(t-1)/2]) dt, and the goal is to show that I(x) approximates to 4 + (8/π)x + O(x²) as x approaches 0. To simplify the integral, the McLaurin series expansion is utilized, leading to the evaluation of I(0) = 4 and the derivative I'(0) = ∫₀² cos[π(t-1)/2](1+t) dt, which simplifies to (8/π). The discussion emphasizes the use of differentiation under the integral sign to derive I'(x). Overall, the method clarifies how to handle the exponential term in the integral using integration by parts and series expansion techniques.
ra_forever8
Messages
106
Reaction score
0
Consider the integral
\begin{equation}
I(x)=\int^{2}_{0} (1+t) e^{xcos[\pi (t-1)/2]} dt
\end{equation}
show that
\begin{equation}
I(x)= 4+ \frac{8}{\pi}x +O(x^{2})
\end{equation}
as $x\rightarrow0$.=> Using integration by parts, but its too complicated for me because of huge exponential term.
please help me.
 
Mathematics news on Phys.org
First represent the integrand as $f(t)+xg(t)+O(x^2)$.
 
grandy said:
Consider the integral
\begin{equation}
I(x)=\int^{2}_{0} (1+t) e^{xcos[\pi (t-1)/2]} dt
\end{equation}
show that
\begin{equation}
I(x)= 4+ \frac{8}{\pi}x +O(x^{2})
\end{equation}
as $x\rightarrow0$.=> Using integration by parts, but its too complicated for me because of huge exponential term.
please help me.

If You expand I(x) in McLaurin series You have...

$\displaystyle I(x) = I(0) + I^{\ '} (0)\ x + \mathcal{O} (x^{2})\ (1)$

The first term is...

$\displaystyle I(0) = \int_{0}^{2} (1 + t)\ d t = 4\ (2)$

The $\displaystyle I^{\ '} (x)$ can be obtained deriving into the integral and is...

$\displaystyle I^{\ '} (0) = \int_{0}^{2} \cos [\frac{\pi}{2}\ (t-1)]\ (1 + t)\ d t = - \frac{2}{\pi^{2}}\ | \pi\ (1+ t)\ \cos ( \frac{\pi}{2}\ t )- 2\ \sin ( \frac{\pi}{2}\ t) |_{0}^{2} = \frac{8}{\pi}\ (3) $

Kind regards

$\chi$ $\sigma$
 
That was so clear. you made the solution so easy to understand. Thank you very much sir.
 
The $\displaystyle I^{\ '} (x)$ can be obtained deriving into the integral and is...

$\displaystyle I^{\ '} (0) = \int_{0}^{2} \cos [\frac{\pi}{2}\ (t-1)]\ (1 + t)\ d t $

how did you get the above term or $I'(x)$ term?
please clarify me. other than that everything is perfect.
 
grandy said:
The $\displaystyle I^{\ '} (x)$ can be obtained deriving into the integral and is...

$\displaystyle I^{\ '} (0) = \int_{0}^{2} \cos [\frac{\pi}{2}\ (t-1)]\ (1 + t)\ d t $

how did you get the above term or $I'(x)$ term?
please clarify me. other than that everything is perfect.

chisigma used this: Differentiation under the integral sign - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

He differentiated wrt $x$.
 
Suppose ,instead of the usual x,y coordinate system with an I basis vector along the x -axis and a corresponding j basis vector along the y-axis we instead have a different pair of basis vectors ,call them e and f along their respective axes. I have seen that this is an important subject in maths My question is what physical applications does such a model apply to? I am asking here because I have devoted quite a lot of time in the past to understanding convectors and the dual...
Insights auto threads is broken atm, so I'm manually creating these for new Insight articles. In Dirac’s Principles of Quantum Mechanics published in 1930 he introduced a “convenient notation” he referred to as a “delta function” which he treated as a continuum analog to the discrete Kronecker delta. The Kronecker delta is simply the indexed components of the identity operator in matrix algebra Source: https://www.physicsforums.com/insights/what-exactly-is-diracs-delta-function/ by...
Back
Top