How can I simplify this integral using integration by parts?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around simplifying the integral \[ I(x)=\int^{2}_{0} (1+t) e^{x\cos[\pi (t-1)/2]} dt \] using integration by parts, particularly focusing on its behavior as \(x\) approaches 0. Participants explore the expansion of \(I(x)\) in a Maclaurin series and the derivation of its components.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Technical explanation

Main Points Raised

  • One participant suggests representing the integrand as \(f(t)+xg(t)+O(x^2)\) to facilitate the integration process.
  • Another participant expands \(I(x)\) in a Maclaurin series, stating that \(I(x) = I(0) + I^{\ '} (0)\ x + \mathcal{O} (x^{2})\) and calculates \(I(0) = 4\).
  • The derivative \(I^{\ '} (0)\) is computed as \(\int_{0}^{2} \cos [\frac{\pi}{2}\ (t-1)]\ (1 + t)\ d t\), with a specific evaluation leading to \(\frac{8}{\pi}\).
  • One participant expresses gratitude for the clarity of the explanation regarding the solution process.
  • Another participant seeks clarification on how the term \(I^{\ '} (0)\) was derived, specifically questioning the differentiation under the integral sign.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

There is no explicit consensus on the method of simplification, as participants are exploring different aspects of the integral and its expansion. Some participants express understanding while others seek further clarification.

Contextual Notes

The discussion includes assumptions about the validity of differentiation under the integral sign and the conditions under which the Maclaurin series expansion is applicable. Specific mathematical steps and justifications are not fully resolved.

ra_forever8
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Consider the integral
\begin{equation}
I(x)=\int^{2}_{0} (1+t) e^{xcos[\pi (t-1)/2]} dt
\end{equation}
show that
\begin{equation}
I(x)= 4+ \frac{8}{\pi}x +O(x^{2})
\end{equation}
as $x\rightarrow0$.=> Using integration by parts, but its too complicated for me because of huge exponential term.
please help me.
 
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First represent the integrand as $f(t)+xg(t)+O(x^2)$.
 
grandy said:
Consider the integral
\begin{equation}
I(x)=\int^{2}_{0} (1+t) e^{xcos[\pi (t-1)/2]} dt
\end{equation}
show that
\begin{equation}
I(x)= 4+ \frac{8}{\pi}x +O(x^{2})
\end{equation}
as $x\rightarrow0$.=> Using integration by parts, but its too complicated for me because of huge exponential term.
please help me.

If You expand I(x) in McLaurin series You have...

$\displaystyle I(x) = I(0) + I^{\ '} (0)\ x + \mathcal{O} (x^{2})\ (1)$

The first term is...

$\displaystyle I(0) = \int_{0}^{2} (1 + t)\ d t = 4\ (2)$

The $\displaystyle I^{\ '} (x)$ can be obtained deriving into the integral and is...

$\displaystyle I^{\ '} (0) = \int_{0}^{2} \cos [\frac{\pi}{2}\ (t-1)]\ (1 + t)\ d t = - \frac{2}{\pi^{2}}\ | \pi\ (1+ t)\ \cos ( \frac{\pi}{2}\ t )- 2\ \sin ( \frac{\pi}{2}\ t) |_{0}^{2} = \frac{8}{\pi}\ (3) $

Kind regards

$\chi$ $\sigma$
 
That was so clear. you made the solution so easy to understand. Thank you very much sir.
 
The $\displaystyle I^{\ '} (x)$ can be obtained deriving into the integral and is...

$\displaystyle I^{\ '} (0) = \int_{0}^{2} \cos [\frac{\pi}{2}\ (t-1)]\ (1 + t)\ d t $

how did you get the above term or $I'(x)$ term?
please clarify me. other than that everything is perfect.
 
grandy said:
The $\displaystyle I^{\ '} (x)$ can be obtained deriving into the integral and is...

$\displaystyle I^{\ '} (0) = \int_{0}^{2} \cos [\frac{\pi}{2}\ (t-1)]\ (1 + t)\ d t $

how did you get the above term or $I'(x)$ term?
please clarify me. other than that everything is perfect.

chisigma used this: Differentiation under the integral sign - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

He differentiated wrt $x$.
 

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