How can it be proved that every body has (and only one) CM point?

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The discussion centers on proving that every body has a unique center of mass (CM). The center of mass is defined mathematically, and the proof involves showing that if two points satisfy the condition for CM, they must be equal. By assuming the existence of two distinct CM points and demonstrating that this leads to a contradiction, the uniqueness of the CM is established. The conversation highlights the importance of correctly applying definitions and the necessity of proving both existence and uniqueness in mathematical contexts. Ultimately, the proof confirms that there is only one center of mass for any given body.
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how can it be proved that every body has (and only one) CM point?

given the center of the mass is the point that the distances relative to gives:
\sum m \cdot r = 0
 
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You define
r_c=\frac{\sum m_i r_i}{\sum m_i}
Then you check
\sum m_i (r_i-r_c)=\sum m_i r_i-r_c \sum m_i=0
 
oh yeah... didn't know this is the definition...
was able to prov what i wanted nonetheless though :D
good thing i asked anyway :D
 
That is totally wrong, Gerenuk!

SUPPOSE we define ONE C.M as
r^{(1}}_{C.M}=\frac{\sum_{i}m_{i}r_{i}}{M}
It can then readily be shown that we have:
\frac{\sum_{i}m_{i}(r_{i}-r^{(1)}_{C.M})}{M}=0 (*)
That is all you did, Gerenuk, NOW follows the proof you should have given:

Assume that there is another point, r^{(2)}[/tex] that satisfies (*) by taking the place of the defined C.M.<br /> <br /> Then, we have:<br /> r^{(1)}_{C.M}-r^{(2)}=\frac{\sum_{i}m_{i}r_{i}}{M}-\frac{M}{M}r^{(2)}=\frac{\sum_{i}m_{i}(r_{i}-r^{(2)})}{M}=0<br /> whereby uniqueness of C.M has been proven:<br /> r^{(1)}_{C.M}-r^{(2)}=0
 
"Missing a step" doesn't equate to "totally wrong"
 
diazona said:
"Missing a step" doesn't equate to "totally wrong"
Yes, it does, since that missing step was precisely the proof the asked for.
 
yeah that what i did but..
if the definition of CM is Gerenuk's first equation, then there is no need to proof there is only one...
(though i did ask to use another given haha)
 
Mad_Eye said:
yeah that what i did but..
if the definition of CM is Gerenuk's first equation, then there is no need to proof there is only one...
(though i did ask to use another given haha)
Not at all!

That definition proves that there exists AT LEAST 1 C.M.

It remains to prove that there are no other points having the same property (i.e, uniqueness of the point where the mass-weighted relative positions sums up to 0).

Another argument, ASSUMING the existence of (at least one) point satisfying your equation, can prove that IF such a point exists, then it must be unique.
(You'll need to CONSTRUCT such a point afterwards in order to prove that it does, indeed, exist!)

The uniqueness argument goes then as follows:

Assume that two such points exist. Then we have:
\sum_{i}m_{i}(r_{i}-r^{(1)})-\sum_{i}m_{i}(r_{i}-r^{(2)})=0
since both terms are, by definition, equal to 0.
The right-hand side is now easily re-written as:
(r^{(1)}-r^{(2)})\sum_{i}m_{i}=0
and since the total mass is a positive number, uniqueness follows.
 
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