Halc said:
I'm saying that if something can leave our observable universe (OU), then by definition the OU must be larger than the abstract line we've drawn. Otherwise, by broken symmetry, the distant thing's OU would be a different size than ours.
I have no idea what you are saying here.
Halc said:
Is not what defines the observable universe. See further comments below.
Halc said:
only one correct definition, which is something like "relative to event X, the observable universe is the set of all matter that can ever have had a causal effect on event X". X is typically 'here and now'.
So this would be the set of worldlines that have any portion inside the "light cone" region on the diagram. Yes, for this sense of "observable universe", objects can't leave it because once a portion of a worldline is inside our "light cone" region, a portion of that worldline will always be inside our "light cone" region at any future time, since the "light cone" region always gets larger (and its limiting region as time goes to future infinity is the "event horizon" region).
I understand this, but I don't understand how what you said in the first quote I gave from you in this post, or the previous argument of yours that I said was circular in a previous post, is saying what I am saying in the above paragraph.
Halc said:
I made it up, but it seems to be how cosmologists use the term when they say it currently has a radius of about 46 BLY.
What cosmologists mean when they say the "observable universe" currently has a radius of about 46 GLy is that that is the distance from us "now" of the furthest comoving worldline that has some portion inside the "light cone" region on the diagrams. However, cosmologists are notorious, particularly in communications with non-cosmologists and the public, for loose usage of terminology. This statement by cosmologists does not really tell you anything useful about
what we can observe. For example, it gives no hint that we can only see a
portion of the worldline of any distant object that is in our observable universe--we can't see the portion that is outside the "light cone" region, and we will
never, even in the infinite future, be able to see the portion that is outside the "event horizon" region.
Also, to get back to the original subject of this thread, from the standpoint of a "closed system", the observable universe is certainly not one. Even if objects can't leave it (which they can't if we adopt your preferred definition), they can
enter it, and are continually doing so as we move into the future and our "light cone" region of spacetime covers portions of more worldlines (and note that this is true regardless of which definition we adopt, your preferred one or mine--but see below for a further comment on that).
Halc said:
It actually seems more like a semantic mistake to say an object enters our OU, but rather our OU expands to include objects (initial portions of worldlines) that were not included at earlier times. The object didn't move it, the 'in line' moved.
You can look at it this way, but the obvious question to ask if you do is, who the heck cares about the observable universe on this definition? If it's just some abstract line that's moving, and nothing about the objects is affected, what's the point?
Focusing on the "light cone" region, however, emphasizes that what is happening is that new objects
are now able to causally influence us. True, it's just the initial portions of the worldlines of those objects, not those objects "now", because of the finite speed of light. But it's still a matter of new causal influences. You could say it's the new causal influences that are "entering" our observable universe rather than new objects, but that seems like, to use your terminology, a semantic mistake; the causal influences come from the objects.
Halc said:
I agree that in comoving coordinates (either of the lower two pictures) the light cone defines the OU better than the particle horizon.
No. The particle horizon does not define the OU at all. The light cone does. The strictly correct technical definition is, as I said above, the furthest comoving worldline that has any portion inside our past light cone "now". It so happens that the particle horizon
crosses that same worldline "now", because of symmetry: the particle horizon is outgoing light rays from our origin event, and the light cone is ingoing light rays to our event "now". But the particle horizon still has nothing to do with the
definition of the OU.
Note that this has
nothing to do with any choice of coordinates; the "light cone"
region of spacetime, and which worldlines have a portion in it "now", is independent of any choice of coordinates. It's just much harder to
see on the "proper distance" diagram because the scale factor goes to zero at the bottom of the diagram, so all of the worldlines appear to "radiate" from the same initial point as ours does, and you can't really tell which ones are inside the "light cone" and which aren't. One of the great advantages of conformal diagrams is that they make aspects of causal structure like this much clearer.