How can we test the holographic principle and nonlocality in quantum mechanics?

  • Thread starter Thread starter christian_dude_27
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Holographic Universe
  • #101
A moebius strip is an everyday object with spin half.
No, it's not; it has spin 2. If you rotate it 180 degrees, you get the original back.

If it had spin half, then a 360 degree rotation would just reverse it.

(This is, of course, all just an analogy)
 
Physics news on Phys.org
  • #102
Farsight said:
Ernies:

IMHO a flip or a twist (or a rotation) doesn't need edges.
A moebius strip is an everyday object with spin half.
[endquote]
Perhaps a fixed rotation does not, but a continuous rotation in space--or your rubber medium?
A moebius strip is indeed an everday object, but when you say it has 'spin' one half you make 'spin' static. I cannot see the mathematics of a moebius strip in GR with no edges.
Maybe I'm being dim.
Ernies.

Edit: I should hav sais ' a continuous rotation of space-- or your rubber medium"
 
Last edited:
  • #103
Farsight said:
Ernies:
Edit: I was looking for a paper by Paul Davies, but couldn't find it. The wife is calling so I have to go: I'll try later. Until then can I say that IMHO a quantum is an increment, perhaps in field excitation, perhaps in something else, and there is no justification for calling it a particle, or for then creating mysteries and problems because we cannot locate this "particle". Sorry, but that's dogma, not physics.

I like Paul Davies ideas in general. Have you read the book he edited of BBC broadcasts in which about half a dozen eminent physicists gave their interpretations of QM? All except one said "There is only one interpretation of QM". Trouble is they were all different.

I have no objections to dogma, provided it is admitted as such. Just call it an axiom to be agreed or disagreed with. I wish all contributors could recognise the distinction.

Ernies
 
  • #104
Ernies: Sorry, I'm not clear on your question. I was just trying to illustrate that many subatomic properties can be considered as geometrical transformations, and that these offer a connection to bridge the gap between the quanta of QM and the warp of GR.

No, I haven't read that book. I'll look out for it.

Dogma is never admitted as such, Ernies. Never. Please try to replace the word particle with entity.

Hurkyl: you have to go round twice to get back to where you started.
 
  • #105
ZapperZ said:
I think that in itself should give you plenty of hints.

You should not try to start at the "top", because to get there, one needs to go through all the steps in between. So when you ask about "nonlocality", there are already a series of understanding that is required to be able to comprehend accurate answers to that question. It is why there are so many prerequisites in higher level college classes.

Read first about basic quantum mechanics, work yourself into quantum superposition and entanglement, then go into Bell theorem and experiments, and then maybe you'll discover the issue of "nonlocality".

There are no shortcuts.

Zz.
There is no issue of non-locality, neither is there a problem for realism. It is perfectly possible to construct locally causal, realist theories in which nonlocal correlations between ``particle-events'' can be measured. So all Bell's theorem shows it that if you take particles to be fundamental degrees of freedom *and* insist upon local causality then QM is outside this class. It is of course a very different matter to construct such theory which reproduces QM, but yes an ideal Bell test does not even refute local realism (actually it seems the latter class contains QM). If you drop the requirement of local, then I guess S. Adler has already given evidence of this. If you want to have a reference for this opinion, check out the papers of 't Hooft.

Careful
 
  • #106
Careful said:
There is no issue of non-locality, neither is there a problem for realism. It is perfectly possible to construct locally causal, realist theories in which nonlocal correlations between ``particle-events'' can be measured. So all Bell's theorem shows it that if you take particles to be fundamental degrees of freedom *and* insist upon local causality then QM is outside this class. It is of course a very different matter to construct such theory which reproduces QM, but yes an ideal Bell test does not even refute local realism (actually it seems the latter class contains QM). If you drop the requirement of local, then I guess S. Adler has already given evidence of this. If you want to have a reference for this opinion, check out the papers of 't Hooft.

Careful
To clarify this : the particle assumption is actually hidden in the Kolmogorov assumption (factorizing of probability). The intuitive justification for this assumption is that particles with opposite spin traveling in opposite directions shall always exist and more or less follow the classical path at speed less than the speed of light, making interaction impossible if the detector settings cannot be communicated (again limited by the speed of light). However the latter assumptions do not hold in ordinary QFT (particles can be annihilated while other particles reappear at spacelike separated distances), where particles are local excitations of the field. By seeing particles as a statistical (coarse grained) property of the field, it is possible to mimic particle creation/annihilation in a deterministic, LOCAL theory ( --> violation of Kolmogorov assumption). This is, I think, a part of the possibility expressed by 't Hooft.

Here is a useful reference : http://arxiv.org/PS_cache/cond-mat/pdf/0403/0403692.pdf by Peter Morgan of Yale. This is about stochastic models, in which 't Hoofts determinism fits in nicely : basically, it is impossible to write down a deterministic equation for the ``particle'' so that the particle dynamics is effectively stochastic. It is cute to notice that the Bell limit for stochastic modes exceeds the one for QM.

Careful
 
Last edited by a moderator:
  • #107
Careful said:
To clarify this ... (particles can be annihilated while other particles reappear at spacelike separated distances), where particles are local excitations of the field.
By seeing particles as a statistical (coarse grained) property of the field, it is possible to mimic particle creation/annihilation in a deterministic, LOCAL theory ...
BUT your "mimic" can not be completed without using the annihilation to creation steps with the "statistical (coarse grained) property", AKA particles, reappearing as you have described "at spacelike separated distances"!

That means they have changed location FTL - how much more NON-LOCAL can you get.

Your own explanation and clarification falsify this idea’s (not even a theory) initial premise that “There is no issue of non-locality”. Clearly your solution is non-local.
 
  • #108
RandallB said:
BUT your "mimic" can not be completed without using the annihilation to creation steps with the "statistical (coarse grained) property", AKA particles, reappearing as you have described "at spacelike separated distances"!

That means they have changed location FTL - how much more NON-LOCAL can you get.

Your own explanation and clarification falsify this idea’s (not even a theory) initial premise that “There is no issue of non-locality”. Clearly your solution is non-local.

No, I have not changed location FTL : there is even no deterministic law for the change of particle position (even position is a coarse grained concept) - it could even be that a particle dissapears and two of them appear at the same time at spacelike separated distances. The proposal (of 't Hooft and many others) is entirely local, you might want to think about that - anyway have to go now.

Careful
 
Last edited:
  • #109
RandallB said:
That means they have changed location FTL - how much more NON-LOCAL can you get.
By not starting off with particles in the first place? By considering that the entities we are dealing with are simply not point particles? How can I put it? Sorry to be cynical, but how about this:

The quantum of water in a fireman's hose is the gallon. But a gallon isn't all in one place. Which means it's in two places at once. Therefore Parallel Universes, Many Worlds, QED.
 
Last edited:
  • #110
Careful said:
No, I have not changed location FTL : ...
a particle dissapears and two of them appear at the same time at spacelike separated distances.
Once again, self defeating and contradicting statements – this time inside a single sentence.

Non-Locality does not go away by waving your hands over the useful simultaneous forming of particles at space-like separations (i.e. information being shared FTL) and just claiming: “This is Local, not Non-Local, it just has no local explanation of how it correlates perfectly with the Non-Local assumptions of theories like QM (probabilities) and BM (guide wave) etc.”

So NO-Dice, I don’t accept this as a “Local” solution, invalidating Non-Local Theories!
I’ll look at QM and BM as legit competing non-local theories, even though I’d prefer a local one that works. But this thing whatever you call it; is ether an ill formed idea, or gross misinterpretation of a 't Hooft Non-Local concept.
 
  • #111
Farsight said:
By not starting off with particles in the first place? By considering that the entities we are dealing with are simply not point particles? How can I put it? Sorry to be cynical, but how about this:

Dear Farshight,

If you don't understand what I am saying, then you could politely ask me or you could at least try to read the papers I mentioned above. A certain class of toy models in which you can achieve this are cellular automatons.

Careful
 
  • #112
Dear RandallB,

The same comment applies to you.

**
Once again, self defeating and contradicting statements – this time inside a single sentence. Non-Locality does not go away by waving your hands over the useful simultaneous forming of particles at space-like separations (i.e. information being shared FTL) and just claiming: “This is Local, not Non-Local, it just has no local explanation of how it correlates perfectly with the Non-Local assumptions of theories like QM (probabilities) and BM (guide wave) etc.” **

I do not contradict myself in any way and if you find any self defeating sentences of mine you are welcome to report them to me.
If a particle dissapears somewhere it simply does not exist anymore (period) - so you clearly did not understand this sentence.

BM has the wrong starting point, it starts from non relativistic QM and not QFT. What 't Hooft basically says is that the dynamics at the Planck scale is deterministic, local and chaotic; particles are hughe collections of these Planckian vibrations. The idea is that if you look at the effective dynamics at the scale of the particles, then you would have (to an excellent approximation) a stochastic theory (in which you can treat the particles like points). Stochastic theories can violate the Bell inequalties (actually the normal limit is 2, QM = 2 sqrt(2) and stochastic is 4).

references are : quant-ph/0212095 and http://www.phys.uu.nl/~thooft/gthpub/DiceWorld.pdf

And who said that this option INVALIDATES non local theories (?), you are imagining things I have never said and cannot read the things I say. I said there is no ISSUE of local realist versus non local (realist or not) in the context of Bell experiments, at least not on the simplistic level you are talking on - it might be on a much more sophisticated level, but that is unknown. Anyone who can read the latter sentence knows that it means : measurement of an EPR state is not the way to refute local realist theories.

On the other hand Zapperz raised valid comments on another thread : interpretations of QM, what is nature really like ?

Careful
 
Last edited:
  • #113
Careful said:
The same comment applies to you.
You need to be more specific.
Which comment applied to what claim of mine?
If you can be detailed here I’ll try to clarify what ever it is I claimed that you don’t understand.
And who said that this option INVALIDATES non local theories (?), you are imagining things I have never said and cannot read the things I say. I said there is no ISSUE of l...
In post 106 you claimed “There is no issue of non-locality, neither is there a problem for realism.” QM claims and depends on Non-Local being a fact, managed by HUP. If as you say there is no issue of non-locality than that is claiming that QM is wrong.

Did you miss the point that Farsight was supporting your position and trying to resolve my complaint. His “Quantum Gallon” can be as large as he likes and contain the action of a particle or a pair of entangled particles. I’m satisfied that he is correct that is a fair way and a fair analogy of what your describing that does provide a solution to Bell.
My problem is I cannot accept that as a “Local” and “Real” solution until the action inside that “Quantum Gallon” (Farsight likes using descriptive names for a particle or ‘entity’) is clearly defined in descriptive local terms. - Random chaotic stochastic assumptions taken to an “to an excellent approximation”, so that ‘a particle disappears somewhere’ while at the same time at space-like separation something can appear retaining correlating information from it, is just not good enough to be defined as LOCAL.

Mind you proving the world is Local is my own goal and belief, but I won’t claim or accept it without a complete and convincing LOCAL explanation.
Non-Locality as needed by QM and others is an acceptable real issue, not a non-issue.
Not until you, Farsight, myself or someone can do that, will we be proving QM wrong.
 
  • #114
Careful said:
Dear Farshight,

If you don't understand what I am saying, then you could politely ask me or you could at least try to read the papers I mentioned above. A certain class of toy models in which you can achieve this are cellular automatons.

Careful
Farshight?

Please can you repost a link to one selected paper along with a very brief restatement of what you're saying.
 
  • #115
**
If you can be detailed here I’ll try to clarify what ever it is I claimed that you don’t understand.In post 106 you claimed “There is no issue of non-locality, neither is there a problem for realism.” QM claims and depends on Non-Local being a fact, managed by HUP. If as you say there is no issue of non-locality than that is claiming that QM is wrong. **

I don't know your level in physics (my answer would depend on that, no offense :smile:), but fine. First of all, it are the Copenhagen, Bohm-de Broglie and spontanious collapse model (let me restrict to the realist interpretations) FORMULATIONS which are non-local; this does not imply that the predictions of QM necessarily emerge from a non-local theory. As to my physical intuition, I cannot imagine a theory which is neither realist, neither local and I have met nobody who can make sense of that. It is my deep conviction that ultimately the laws in physics for the CORRECT fundamental degrees of freedom are local, therefore I think the current FORMULATION of QM is incomplete : this is far from saying that QM is wrong.

You need to take as starting point quantum field theory where particles get created and annihalated, these are all local processes: to mimic this you can can start from a theory containing more fundamental degrees of freedom. I am currently not going to give more details of the specific automaton model I have in mind; but the references I provided should give enough hints.


**
Did you miss the point that Farsight was supporting your position and trying to resolve my complaint. His “Quantum Gallon” can be as large as he likes and contain the action of a particle or a pair of entangled particles. I’m satisfied that he is correct that is a fair way and a fair analogy of what your describing that does provide a solution to Bell. **

He was not helping me, he thinks in terms of parallel universes and all that nonsense - this is not what I was talking about at all. :confused:

**
My problem is I cannot accept that as a “Local” and “Real” solution until the action inside that “Quantum Gallon” (Farsight likes using descriptive names for a particle or ‘entity’) is clearly defined in descriptive local terms. **

The whole point is that the effective action for the particle is not (necessarily) local(ly stochastic) - while the dynamics for the true degrees of freedom is.

** Random chaotic stochastic assumptions taken to an “to an excellent approximation”, so that ‘a particle disappears somewhere’ while at the same time at space-like separation something can appear retaining correlating information from it, is just not good enough to be defined as LOCAL. **

But it is (!), you still do not understand what I am talking about. As a *simple* example, imagine yourself a particle (momentum p, spin s) which moves to the right at t = 0. At the same time, a particle - anti particle pair can be created at x = L > 0; the particle having momentum close to p and also spin s. The first particle and the anti-particle will meet approximately at L/2, they disappear and you are left with a perfectly correlated particle at x = 3L/2 !

The thing I try to learn you is that local realism is not necessarily in conflict with QM if you try to understand the correct theory, which is QFT. Really, read the papers of 't Hooft... I think I said in one of my first posts here that QM is an emergency solution; it is of course much easier to construct a nonlocal theory accounting for appearantly non local phenomena when you add a rule of thumb without further explanation (the famous reduction). However, one must REMEMBER one did not have a better idea at the time instead of looking for science fiction explanations to promote the ignorance as newly acquired deep understanding - although it is deep in the sense that it beautifully fits with experiment.



Careful
 
Last edited:
  • #116
Careful

As I read your last paragraph your saying hooft claims that his interpretation of QFT indicates that local realism might not necessarily be in conflict with QM.
I have no problem with that -- I disagree with the idea, but it is a good bit short of declaring that "There is no issue of non-locality" as being a settled issue.
If it was successful in settling the issue; I'd expect to see a GUT and likely a TOE come from the theory rather directly.

I understand the anti-particle idea being used here.
And I disagree about Farsight - his is not MWI and a fair view that can use what you are saying here in trying to resolve the GR vs. QM issue. I actually think his Quantum Gallon analogy is a rather good one -- BUT still: the instant jump from L/2 to 3L/2 is FTL; & with no reason for the pair at space-like separated L to start off as a match to the particle at 0, this is filled with non-local issues.

As a local realist myself, I believe a local theory will ruin QM and non-locals. Maybe the math of QFT may well remain as a description of something else not currently understood.

My standard for confirming "LOCAL" is very high - I see it as the only way to avoid and move on from crackpot local ideas and those that are in realty non-local. This one, for me at least, falls into the latter.
I don't expect any Mentors or Advisors to step in and say the scientific community accepts this as settled; So let's leave it that it doesn't work for me.
 
  • #117
**
As I read your last paragraph your saying hooft claims that his interpretation of QFT indicates that local realism might not necessarily be in conflict with QM.
I have no problem with that -- I disagree with the idea, but it is a good bit short of declaring that "There is no issue of non-locality" as being a settled issue. **

No, it is not : there exist examples of local, classical theories which reproduce EPR correlations; however these can fairly be dismissed as being conspirational. The point about locally stochastic theories is that they can violate without problem the various forms of Bell's inequalities and do so in a *natural* way. So, there is in no obvious way an issue of non-locality in the sense that BOTH viewpoints appear to be possible so far. But I can hardly think of a *fundamental* stochastic dynamics for the universe too.

**If it was successful in settling the issue; I'd expect to see a GUT and likely a TOE come from the theory rather directly. **

Right, that is it's aim - although it is not that easy (computationally).

**
-- BUT still: the instant jump from L/2 to 3L/2 is FTL; & with no reason for the pair at space-like separated L to start off as a match to the particle at 0, this is filled with non-local issues **

No, it is not - it is just about the statistics of the vacuum (L is to be interpreted statistically of course). As far as Farsight goes, I don't know him, neither his opinions, therefore one should avoid metaphors.

**
As a local realist myself, I believe a local theory will ruin QM and non-locals. Maybe the math of QFT may well remain as a description of something else not currently understood. **

So, you are betting all your money on a perfect Bell test never being done and keeping particles as fundamental degrees of freedom ? Or are you in the locally stochastic camp ? Moreover, I disagree with you when you say that a local theory will ruin QM : as I see it, IF QM is RIGHT predictionwise, then any such local theory is much more complicated and the formalism of QM will certainly remain as a very useful tool.

I don't see any point in discussing about locality versus non-locality as is done here: local realism is not ruled out in any obvious way, so it is up to local realists to offer an alternative theory; all the rest is blabla.

**
My standard for confirming "LOCAL" is very high - I see it as the only way to avoid and move on from crackpot local ideas and those that are in realty non-local. This one, for me at least, falls into the latter. **

It is clearly local, except that you refuse to see particles as emergent properties. So, I assume you have no desire to reproduce particle creation/annihilation ?

Careful
 
Last edited:
  • #118
Careful said:
it is just about the statistics of the vacuum (L is to be interpreted statistically of course).
Sure --- very much as a HUP non-local uncertainty.
And I do trust your explanation of this one to know it is not one I need to dive into deeply - so thanks.
So, you are betting all your money on ...
No, - I'm am betting.
But on my terms and on my expectations, not yours or your assumptions.
Any good solution will be simpler and more fundamentally clear than what we see today not more complex.
 
  • #119
**Sure --- very much as a HUP non-local uncertainty.
And I do trust your explanation of this one to know it is not one I need to dive into deeply - so thanks. **

Huh ?? It has nothing to do with HUP (!), it is merely classical statistics.

**
But on my terms and on my expectations, not yours or your assumptions.
Any good solution will be simpler and more fundamentally clear than what we see today not more complex.**

You do not say anything here, neither do you answer any of my questions and neither do you tell us how you are going to try to avoid clashes with Bell inequalities. So, I ask you again, what is your point of discussing all this ??

Careful
 
  • #120
Careful:

I'm not somebody who thinks MWI is the correct picture of reality. I'm somebody who thinks that there's confusion between a quantum and a particle, and this may be the root of QM interpretation problems. For example:

You need to take as starting point quantum field theory where particles get created and annihilated
 
  • #121
Farsight said:
Careful:

I'm not somebody who thinks MWI is the correct picture of reality. I'm somebody who thinks that there's confusion between a quantum and a particle, and this may be the root of QM interpretation problems. For example:


So, what is wrong with that statement ?? Are you denying particle - anti particle pair creation out of the vacuum ? Please SAY something substantial, give us your alternative - your view on nature. How do you think to bypass some quantum mechanisms ? If you are a Bohmian, then you must be aware that there exists no -even remotely- convincing interpretation for QFT. Instead of making cryptic sentences you might better be straightforward, so that we see where the beef is.

Careful
 
  • #122
I wish you'd stop being snippy.

Yes, I guess I am denying particle/antiparticle pair creation out of the vacuum. In a way. Bear with me.

You asked what's wrong with this statement:

You need to take as starting point quantum field theory where particles get created and annihilated

What's wrong with it, is the confusion between quanta and particles. It should read:

You need to take as starting point quantum field theory where quanta are created and annihilated

There's a world of difference between the two. If you take particles as your starting point you are forever bogged down with mystery caused by the "quanta are particles" axiom.

I'll try to give an illustration: I view a photon as a traveling warp with a given energy. It has no edge. It has no surface. It has no point location. It's the electromagnetic equivalent of a shout. Seen any "shout" particles recently? And isn't it amazing how a shout manages to be in two places at once?

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Quantum_field_theory
 
Last edited:
  • #123
I would like the different antagonists to answer some point for me, because there seem to be strange statements made here.

As far as I know, Bell has nothing to do with particle/no particle or whatever. What Bell discusses, is just a list of OBSERVATIONS without making any assumptions of any underlying mechanism, except the following one: all probabilities are descriptions of ignorance.

A deterministic theory is local if something happening at event A is entirely determined by what is in A's past lightcone. The extention of the notion to a probabilistic theory is: the probability of something happening at event A is entirely determined by what is in A's past lightcone. This is the most sensible extension to stochastic theories from deterministic theories, but it has to be said that this is an extra assumption. Indeed, "locality" doesn't mean anything anymore with IRREDUCIBLE stochastic theories, because "things just happen" and there's no way to avoid conspiracies.

However, if we take it that nature is fundamentally deterministic, and we say that all "probability" is ignorance-based, then both definitions of locality are identical: the probability of something happening at A describes exactly the ignorance of the precise state of nature in A's past lightcone (which, if we would know it, would allow us to find exactly the outcome at A without any uncertainty).

We call such a definition of local: Bell-local.

This means that any apparent CHANGE in the probability at A can only come about, in a Bell-local theory, by a CHANGE of our knowledge of the precise state of A's past lightcone (by, for instance, learning about another measurement result somewhere else).

This means that there is some "total information" T which would uniquely determine the outcome at A, and that the probability of A is nothing else but P(A) = P(T), the probability (ignorance description) of the different T.

If we have some other observations OUTSIDE of A's past light cone, at B, then the correlation P(A,B) = P(A|B) P(B) must be entirely dependent on the information of A's past lightcone in B.

Now, Bell considers an event at A and 3 different kinds of events at B: B1, B2, B3, and considers that there is an overall probability distribution P(A,B1,B2,B3), the reason being that the decision of whether it will be B1, B2 or B3 is made outside of A's past lightcone, and hence can in no way alter the information that will determine A (namely T).
Purely from the existence of this probability distribution, Bell derives the Bell inequalities, which put a condition on P(A|B1), P(A|B2) and P(A|B3), which is violated by the predictions of the quantum formalism.

Note that this only pertains to OBSERVED CORRELATIONS OF MEASUREMENT RESULTS. Nowhere, any assumption is made about any MECHANISM.
The only thing which is done, is the extension of the concept of locality, which only makes strictly sense for deterministic theories, to "apparently stochastical" theories. As such, it coincides with the requirement of locality for underlying deterministic theories where probabilities are just descriptions of ignorance.
In the case of irreducible stochastic theories (for which no definition of locality holds ! "things happen" can be entirely conspirational), it is an extension of the concept of "local".

So I was wondering how anyone could claim that nature is still local, measurements are still objectively happening events with unique outcomes, and perfect Bell tests are in agreement with quantum theory.

That can, IMO, only happen by redefining "local" into something else.
One has then to demonstrate that this redefinition doesn't also allow a Faster Than Light telephone to be "local".
(in the sense that 3 is smaller than 2, for sufficiently large values of 2 :smile:)

In the above reasoning, nowhere, is made use of "particles" or "waves" or whatever. Just a consideration of probabilities of outcomes of measurement, as a function of a choice between 3 possible measurements, entirely independent of whatever phenomenon that might generate it.

BTW, I would, for the n-th time, want to underscore that MWI-QM *IS* a local "realist" theory in agreement with Bell, in that it is "realist" (objective description of nature), it is "local" (all dynamics is local)...
but the cop-out is of course that there are no unique measurement results at A and B. Both results happen. And the correlation is only happening upon A and B meeting ; because at this point, the states contain already the information of the choice at B, and hence can "pair up" in the right way to produce the correct correlations.
 
Last edited:
  • #124
**
Yes, I guess I am denying particle/antiparticle pair creation out of the vacuum. In a way. Bear with me.

I'll try to give an illustration: I view a photon as a traveling warp with a given energy. It has no edge. It has no surface. It has no point location. It's the electromagnetic equivalent of a shout. Seen any "shout" particles recently? And isn't it amazing how a shout manages to be in two places at once? **

So, are you telling that the Schroedinger wave represents some energy density, in blatant conflict with the probability interpratation? In this way you never solve the measurement problem since you would need to explain the sudden collapse to a particle state.
 
  • #125
vanesch said:
As far as I know, Bell has nothing to do with particle/no particle or whatever.

That's true. I stopped following this thread because the sub-debate it degenerated into is 100% off the track.

But...

What Bell discusses, is just a list of OBSERVATIONS without making any assumptions of any underlying mechanism, except the following one: all probabilities are descriptions of ignorance.

That is absolutely false. To say that all probabilities are descriptions of ignorance, is to say that one insists on determinism -- i.e., that one is unwilling to accept the possibility of an irreducibly stochastic theory. This is just simply wrong as a description of Bell's assumptions. Bell does *not* assume determinism, as he stressed over and over again in his later papers (because people kept insisting that his derivation relied on determinism).


A deterministic theory is local if something happening at event A is entirely determined by what is in A's past lightcone. The extention of the notion to a probabilistic theory is: the probability of something happening at event A is entirely determined by what is in A's past lightcone.

That's right, except what you said above implies that you actually misunderstand what you wrote here. To make it more precise, you should say: the probability *that an irreducibly stochastic theory attributes to* something happening at event A is entirely determined by what is in A's past lightcone. The probabilites in "Bell Locality" are *not* epistemic -- they are the fundamental dynamical probabilities that some candidate stochastic theory assigns to things. And what Bell Locality amounts to is the requirement that these probabilities be based on (as, for example, the probabilities in OQM are based on the wave function) stuff/events/beables in the past light cone of the event in question. The probabilities assigned to an event in a Bell Local theory do not depend on stuff outside the past light cone.


This is the most sensible extension to stochastic theories from deterministic theories, but it has to be said that this is an extra assumption.

It's no more or less an assumption than the definition of "local" for deterministic theories. It's just a more general definition of "local".


Indeed, "locality" doesn't mean anything anymore with IRREDUCIBLE stochastic theories, because "things just happen" and there's no way to avoid conspiracies.

That's preposterous. Of course "locality" still means something for irreducibly stochastic theories. Yes, in a sense, "things just happen", but it's not a cosmic free-for-all. Random events still have a *basis* -- e.g., in OQM (which is surely irreducibly stochastic, yes?) the probability for some event is one value if the wave function is such and such, but the probability is some other value if the wave function is instead so and so. The probability for the event *depends on* what the wave function is. That's just an example with a specific theory. The general point is that even in a stochastic theory, the probabilities will always depend on *something* (otherwise, you have no theory) -- and then it makes sense to ask whether the relevant "somethings" are or aren't exclusively in the past light cone.



However, if we take it that nature is fundamentally deterministic, and we say that all "probability" is ignorance-based, then both definitions of locality are identical: the probability of something happening at A describes exactly the ignorance of the precise state of nature in A's past lightcone (which, if we would know it, would allow us to find exactly the outcome at A without any uncertainty).

This represents a failure to understand/appreciate Bell Locality. The mathematical conditions requires a *complete* specification of beables in the past light cone. That's Bell's "lambda". (Completeness is of course defined by whatever particular candidate theory one is assessing.) To say that the probabilities in Bell Locality (which are always conditional on this lambda) are ignorance-based is to say that, really, there is some unknown fact which *determines* outcomes, but which is not contained in lambda (hence we only have probabilities, not determinate predictions). But this is all contradictory. That lambda provides a complete state description is *assumed*. You can't just come back later and say "well maybe really it doesn't, and the probabilites are really ignorance-based rather than fundamental". To say that is not some kind of objection to bell's locality criterion -- it's simply to change midstream what theory one is talking about. And if you're too scatterbrained to keep thinking about the same theory through the whole analysis, don't blame it on bell!


We call such a definition of local: Bell-local.

This means that any apparent CHANGE in the probability at A can only come about, in a Bell-local theory, by a CHANGE of our knowledge of the precise state of A's past lightcone (by, for instance, learning about another measurement result somewhere else).

Huh? That is not at all what Bell Locality says.



Now, Bell considers an event at A and 3 different kinds of events at B: B1, B2, B3, and considers that there is an overall probability distribution P(A,B1,B2,B3), the reason being that the decision of whether it will be B1, B2 or B3 is made outside of A's past lightcone, and hence can in no way alter the information that will determine A (namely T).
Purely from the existence of this probability distribution, Bell derives the Bell inequalities, which put a condition on P(A|B1), P(A|B2) and P(A|B3), which is violated by the predictions of the quantum formalism.

All of this talk about "information" is completely off the track. Bell Locality has nothing to do with information, because the probabilities that condition is about are the fundamental dynamical probabilities assigned to events by a stochastic theory -- and this is something that doesn't in any way at all depend on what information anyone does or doesn't have. A theory just makes the (probabilistic) predictions that it makes. That's it. What anybody knows or doesn't know has nothing to do with it. The question is: are those predictions (the probabilities for various possible happenings at some event) based on beables in the past light cone exclusively, or not? If so, the theory is Bell Local. If not, not.



Note that this only pertains to OBSERVED CORRELATIONS OF MEASUREMENT RESULTS. Nowhere, any assumption is made about any MECHANISM.

You have it just backwards. There *is* (something like) an assumption of a mechanism -- namely, there is an assumption of some particular theory. This comes in because the idea of a "complete state description lambda" is something that only some candidate theory can specify. And as I've said the probabilities in Bell Locality are the probabilites assigned by this candidate theory (based on lambda, etc.). The point is then that Bell's Theorem is *general*: the inequality should be satisfied by *any* theory satisfying the locality criterion. So, in that sense, there is no assumption of a *specific* mechanism (particles or whatever). Technically, the theorem is just this: no local theory (i.e., no candidate "mechanism" which respects relativity's prohibition on superluminal causation) can make predictions in violation of the inequality.

In regard to the first part -- Observed Correlations of Measurement Results -- that is just what the P's in Bell Locality do *not* represent.



The only thing which is done, is the extension of the concept of locality, which only makes strictly sense for deterministic theories, to "apparently stochastical" theories.

Huh? What "apparently"? Bell Locality is a condition that applies to *actually*, irreducibly stochastic theories. You're just wrong if you think there is some illicit tacit determinism assumption here.


As such, it coincides with the requirement of locality for underlying deterministic theories where probabilities are just descriptions of ignorance.

Wrong. You need to go back and re-study Bell's discussions in "Theory of Local Beables" and "La Nouvelle Cuisine."



In the above reasoning, nowhere, is made use of "particles" or "waves" or whatever.

Yes, that's right, and it's why this thread has been so pointless lately. Some particular candidate theory might involve "particles". And it would indeed be subject to the bell inequality, if it is local. But some other theory might instead be in terms of waves or fuzzballs or who knows what, and never mention particles. And... drumroll... it *too* will be subject to the inequality if it is local. This seems to be the point that certain recent posters on this thread don't understand. If Bell's Theorem only applied to particle-based theories (or whatever) nobody would care. It would be totally uninteresting.



BTW, I would, for the n-th time, want to underscore that MWI-QM *IS* a local "realist" theory in agreement with Bell, in that it is "realist" (objective description of nature), it is "local" (all dynamics is local)...

What do you mean "in agreement with Bell"? MWI is indeed "local realist" (in some sense of "realist", though not others) but it does *not* make predictions that violate Bell's Inequalities... if that's what you were trying to imply (that MWI is a counterexample to the claim that Bell proved no local theory can predict violations of the inequalities).



but the cop-out is of course that there are no unique measurement results at A and B. Both results happen.
Right, which is why its predictions -- for what *actually happens* -- do not violate the inequalities. Of course, it also "predicts" that observers are systematically deluded into believing that there were definite measurement results at A and B, and that these delusional/fantasy results violate the inequalities. But since that is just delusional fantasy, and not the real state of things, there's no point talking about it.

BTW, I've just completed a paper on some of these topics, titled "Against 'Realism'" (after Bell's paper "Against 'Measurement'"). Watch for it at an arxiv near you sometime next week (after I have a chance to edit it a bit).
 
  • #126
**
As far as I know, Bell has nothing to do with particle/no particle or whatever. What Bell discusses, is just a list of OBSERVATIONS without making any assumptions of any underlying mechanism, except the following one: all probabilities are descriptions of ignorance.

A deterministic theory is local if something happening at event A is entirely determined by what is in A's past lightcone. **

Well, This is the case for the local beables of the theory, but not for the changeables. Bell assumes that particles and their properties are beables (spin and particles are ontologically real). 't Hooft drops this condition.

**
The extention of the notion to a probabilistic theory is: the probability of something happening at event A is entirely determined by what is in A's past lightcone. This is the most sensible extension to stochastic theories from deterministic theories, but it has to be said that this is an extra assumption. Indeed, "locality" doesn't mean anything anymore with IRREDUCIBLE stochastic theories, because "things just happen" and there's no way to avoid conspiracies. **

Right, although local stochastic theories are clearly local.

**
However, if we take it that nature is fundamentally deterministic, and we say that all "probability" is ignorance-based, then both definitions of locality are identical: the probability of something happening at A describes exactly the ignorance of the precise state of nature in A's past lightcone (which, if we would know it, would allow us to find exactly the outcome at A without any uncertainty). **

Well, the theory for the beables is local and deterministic (the Planckian oscillations), but not necessarily the effective theory for the changeables (= particles, particle spin and so on). See : hep-th/0104219 for an introduction to the idea.

**
We call such a definition of local: Bell-local.
**

Again, this is so for the ontologically real quantities, or beables.

** In the case of irreducible stochastic theories (for which no definition of locality holds ! "things happen" can be entirely conspirational), it is an extension of the concept of "local". **

Right, so the question is how the effective theory for the changeables more or less falls in that class.

**
So I was wondering how anyone could claim that nature is still local, measurements are still objectively happening events with unique outcomes, and perfect Bell tests are in agreement with quantum theory. **

Because things are only local for the ontologically REAL degrees of freedom - not necessarily so for those things we call particles.
The next task is to see how GR would fit in.

Concerning my analogy with the particles, I merely expressed by this the underlying thought that the stuff you are talking about is assumed to be real; hence satisfying the requirement of Bell locality when local realistic predicitons for that stuff are dismissed as being unable to surpass the Bell inequalities. So yes, the assumption ``particles are real'' creeps into the usual interpretation of the Bell inequalities although not in the mathematical formulation of it per se. I don't care either, ttn whether you consider waves, sockerballs or whatever; it is silly (and stupid) to presume that someone who says ``particles are assumed to be real'' does not know that the theorem applies to any real quantity you want to. So, if you have more in debth objections than this silly knit picking, you are welcome to provide them.

And ttn, if you think discussion is wrong, please adress your scientific objections directly to those whom you think are wrong. It is clear that you can change particles by whatever, but you still have to assume it to be REAL, which is the point you miss or do not want to see. Or perhaps you have a no go theorem for this proposal, in which case we would learn all something.

Careful
 
Last edited:
  • #127
vanesch said:
So I was wondering how anyone could claim that nature is still local, measurements are still objectively happening events with unique outcomes, and perfect Bell tests are in agreement with quantum theory.

I agree that no theory currently gives a Local solution. The ignorance contained in probabilities is acknowledged by some as non-local within their theory via HUP, Guide Wave etc. Whatever works within that theory at least they acknowledge it as Non-Local.
I just disagree when the desire to claim Locality is reached by hiding the unknown probabilities or ignorance in some loosely defined stochastic mechanism like vacuum particle/antiparticle pair creation. For me that includes MWI-QM. I understand your careful use of quotes on the words realist and local in:
BTW, I would, for the n-th time, want to underscore that MWI-QM *IS* a local "realist" theory in agreement with Bell, in that it is "realist" (objective description of nature), it is "local" …..
Here the unknown uncertainty is tucked away in an alternate form of multidimensional reality with MWs that allowed to “pair up” worlds sometime after the A and B events in those that produce the correct correlations. That is an alternate version of reality you may call “reality” but until we have some conclusive objective demonstration that that kind of reality is correct I cannot accept it. As a local realist without quotation marks, for me MWI-QM is a "reality" that is still a non-local explanation.

I do believe the world is Local, but I’ve seen nothing here that would allow me to claim it as true. The term should be held to higher standard than has been the case, or at least some acknowledgment when a stochastic variation of Local is being claimed as “Local”.
 
Last edited:
  • #128
**The ignorance contained in probabilities is acknowledged by some as non-local within their theory via HUP, Guide Wave etc. Whatever works within that theory at least they acknowledge it as Non-Local.
I just disagree when the desire to claim Locality is reached by hiding the unknown probabilities or ignorance in some loosely defined stochastic mechanism like vacuum particle/antiparticle pair creation. For me that includes MWI-QM. **

But QFT does not make the link to observed reality and MWI abandons the notion of one reality. But if you assume particles to be ontologically real, then what is your position (it seems you have only one option) ?

**
I do believe the world is Local, but I’ve seen nothing here that would allow me to claim it as true. The term should be held to higher standard than has been the case, or at least some acknowledgment when a stochastic variation of Local is being claimed as “Local”. **

So basically you hope for no Bell violating experiments I guess...

Careful
 
  • #129
Careful said:
Concerning my analogy with the particles, I merely expressed by this the underlying thought that the stuff you are talking about is assumed to be real; hence satisfying the requirement of Bell locality when local realistic predicitons for that stuff are dismissed as being unable to surpass the Bell inequalities. So yes, the assumption ``particles are real'' creeps into the usual interpretation of the Bell inequalities although not in the mathematical formulation of it per se. I don't care either, ttn whether you consider waves, sockerballs or whatever; it is silly (and stupid) to presume that someone who says ``particles are assumed to be real'' does not know that the theorem applies to any real quantity you want to. So, if you have more in debth objections than this silly knit picking, you are welcome to provide them.

And ttn, if you think discussion is wrong, please adress your scientific objections directly to those whom you think are wrong. It is clear that you can change particles by whatever, but you still have to assume it to be REAL, which is the point you miss or do not want to see. Or perhaps you have a no go theorem for this proposal, in which case we would learn all something.
Careful

I meant no disrespect by not addressing you directly; I just don't think you understand this issue particularly well, and so I don't really want to spend time getting into a protracted discussion with you. All your comments about beables vs. "changeables" and what is and isn't ontologically real, etc., make no sense to me. Are you suggesting that something which is *not* "ontologically real" (a "changeable" as opposed to a beable??) plays some important role in the physics? And your idea of "explaining" the EPR type correlations with particle/antiparticle creation is just silly, and obviously wouldn't work. Or rather, to make it work, you would need nonlocality in the dynamics. But this is all just some pointless detail, since, contrary to what you seem to think, there is no assumption about the reality of particles (or whatever) needed to arrive at Bell's inequalities. Locality (specifically "Bell Locality") is *all* that is assumed. Don't believe me, though. Go study Bell's papers. You might want to pay special attention to section 4 of "Bertlmann's Socks..." where Bell specifically addresses the reader's possible worries that some other assumptions snuck in, and says things like "You might suspect that there is something specially peculiar about spin-1/2 particles. ... So the following argument makes no reference to spin-1/2 particles, or any other particular particles. Finally, you might suspect that the very notion of particle, and particle orbit, freely used in introducing the problem, has somehow led us astray. ... So the following argument will not m ention particles, nor indeed fields, nor any other particular picture of what goes on at the microscopic level. ... The difficulty is not created by any such picture or any such terminology..."

Or was your point supposed to be an objection against the very *idea* of considering some hypothetical/candidate description of "the real" -- i.e., were you objecting to the very idea of an independent external physical reality? If that, then you're right. You can't get a Bell Inequality without that. But who (other than maybe Rovelli and Smerlak, and inmates in mental institutions) would deny this?
 
  • #130
I'm sorry vanesch, I'm not clear on the point you wanted answered.

Careful:
In this way you never solve the measurement problem since you would need to explain the sudden collapse to a particle state.
I'm not sure what you're asking of me here. You can measure and/or annihilate the quantum at point X and therefore it appears to be all at point X, a point particle. But all you've really got is a "Phantom Jet" detector, which involves a very large concrete block, and a 500mph rocket driven sled.

http://www.fotosearch.com/PHD293/54334/
 
  • #131
Careful said:
But QFT does not make the link to observed reality and MWI abandons the notion of one reality.
I have no problem with those points -- it is part of what make them both non-local.

As for Bell I suspect he has made an error similar to the one by Von Neumann that Bell exposed as an error. But until I ready I'm ready with more than a personal belief and a suspicion I make no claims - it would belong in another thread anyway, not here.
 
  • #132
Careful said:
If you are a Bohmian, then you must be aware that there exists no -even remotely- convincing interpretation for QFT.

Okay.

Suppose that particles are all composites, and that in interactions, they are neither created nor destroyed, except in pairs of particle / antiparticle (and then only in virtual form). Then one can rewrite the usual particle interactions in terms of particles in a Bohmian fashion. That is, there will be no particle creation / annihilation, so the whole thing will look again like QM, a problem that Bohmian mechanics has provided a remotely convincing interpretation.

Under this assumption, QFT would be an effective theory which lies on top of a QM. This, in fact, was how QFT was first developed, by the condensed matter physicists in order to simplify Schroedinger's equation problems.

One of the attractions of string theory is that it takes the usual interactions between a fermion and a gauge boson and smears them out so that there is no single point where creation and annihilation operators would trade places. The above Bohmian interpretation does a similar thing. Every creation is accompanied by one and only one annihilation.

Now the primary disadvantage of the above is that I haven't provided the model of the preons that will give the standard model in Bohmian form. But hey, I'm working on it. http://www.snuark.com

The standard model is complicated. That does not mean that the underlying theory is also complicated. It means that the solutions are complicated. The great example of this tendency of nature is the simplicity of the Pauli extension of Schroedinger's equation and the complexity of the table of the elements.

Carl
 
Last edited by a moderator:
  • #133
**I meant no disrespect by not addressing you directly; I just don't think you understand this issue particularly well, and so I don't really want to spend time getting into a protracted discussion with you. **

I do understand the Bell inequalities quite well and adress your comments further below.


** All your comments about beables vs. "changeables" and what is and isn't ontologically real, etc., make no sense to me. Are you suggesting that something which is *not* "ontologically real" (a "changeable" as opposed to a beable??) plays some important role in the physics? **

Well, this is what the papers do suggest. Ok, let me admit that so far I have not seen any convincing classical mechanism to emerge from his attempts. What is done is that the determinstic dynamics is immediately given a Hilbert space description in which a *quantum constraint* is imposed to ensure the positivity of the Hamiltonian. Beables, in this setup, are operators that commute at all times, changeables do not commute with the latter; for example the Hamiltonian is a changeable. Quantum states are introduced as non-local, acausal equivalence classes of states in the classical dynamics which evolve after a sufficient amount to the same state. In order to ensure that the quantum states appear in much smaller number and that the resulting dynamics is unitary, the condition of information loss is added. Operators concerning particles, spin and so on are not beables. Now, concerning the Bell inequalities I have only seen so far comments which suggest predeterminism, questioning local rotational invariance (of the QM state) without affecting the state (as you know there is also the loophole of local rotation invariance in the Bell experiments) or some issues concerning the vacuum.

** And your idea of "explaining" the EPR type correlations with particle/antiparticle creation is just silly, and obviously wouldn't work. Or rather, to make it work, you would need nonlocality in the dynamics. **

No, there are several possibilities : predeterminism (which could amount to abandoning local rotation invariance), or one could allow the virtual particle/antiparticles to travel FTL (which would violate Bell locality, but not locality).

** But this is all just some pointless detail, since, contrary to what you seem to think, there is no assumption about the reality of particles (or whatever) needed to arrive at Bell's inequalities. Locality (specifically "Bell Locality") is *all* that is assumed. **

It is not that simple : Bell locality does not imply the Kolmogorov property which is the assumption which I questioned (and which is actually the only thing needed + dichotomic outcomes). As mentioned before, predetermism can violate the Bell inequalities since it breaks the Kolomogorov property, but involves no FTL.

**
Or was your point supposed to be an objection against the very *idea* of considering some hypothetical/candidate description of "the real" -- i.e., were you objecting to the very idea of an independent external physical reality? If that, then you're right. You can't get a Bell Inequality without that. But who (other than maybe Rovelli and Smerlak, and inmates in mental institutions) would deny this? **

Euh, as far as I know, S. Adler has figured out a non-local deterministic mechanics whose statistical mechanics reproduces QM. :rolleyes: So it is seems very possible to have a candidate prescription of the real (but not a local one). An interesting paper on free will versus determinism is written by Kochen and Conway : quant-ph/0604079
 
Last edited:
  • #134
ttn said:
That is absolutely false. To say that all probabilities are descriptions of ignorance, is to say that one insists on determinism -- i.e., that one is unwilling to accept the possibility of an irreducibly stochastic theory. This is just simply wrong as a description of Bell's assumptions. Bell does *not* assume determinism, as he stressed over and over again in his later papers (because people kept insisting that his derivation relied on determinism).

I know that Bell says that. But there are 2 points I wanted to make, one over which we went already many times.
I think that the first point is easy and you'll agree with me:
IF the lambda in Bell's argument IS entirely determining the outcomes, so that the P(A,B|a,b,lambds) are all 1 or 0 (in other words, IF the theory is deterministic) THEN, this function being a complicated way of writing the deterministic dynamics, if that dynamics is local (in the usual sense for a deterministic theory), then Bell locality follows.

The second point is what I called jokingly - a long time ago - Patrick's theorem:
If the theory is NOT deterministic, but follows Bell locality, then one can always EXTEND the theory, by adding "beables" into lambda, to make it into a local, deterministic theory, with the same predictions.

As such, I consider that we can limit ourselves to deterministic theories EVEN IF THAT WAS NOT BELL'S INTENTION.

You make no error by assuming that lambda specifies entirely the outcome (even if in a particular theory you're considering, it doesn't). If a theory is Bell local, and "irreducibly stochastic", you can swap it for a theory which is deterministic, and of which all probabilities are hence probabilities of ignorance of what lambda might be.
To make it more precise, you should say: the probability *that an irreducibly stochastic theory attributes to* something happening at event A is entirely determined by what is in A's past lightcone. The probabilites in "Bell Locality" are *not* epistemic -- they are the fundamental dynamical probabilities that some candidate stochastic theory assigns to things. And what Bell Locality amounts to is the requirement that these probabilities be based on (as, for example, the probabilities in OQM are based on the wave function) stuff/events/beables in the past light cone of the event in question. The probabilities assigned to an event in a Bell Local theory do not depend on stuff outside the past light cone.

Yes, but, as I said, we can now even extend the theory as becoming deterministic, with these probabilities now purely epistemic (about our ignorance of the value of these extra variables, which you called the "stochastic variables" in the previous one, and raised to the rank of beables in the new theory), and we would get exactly the same predictions, and this new, deterministic theory would be entirely local (in the usual sense of the word, which has a meaning for deterministic theories).

It's no more or less an assumption than the definition of "local" for deterministic theories. It's just a more general definition of "local".

Yes, that's all I said: it is an EXTENSION of the concept of local. But - as we discussed already many times before - as much as local for a deterministic theory is entirely clear, with probabilities one has to be careful, because they are not really physical quantities (fields over spacetime, say). An event A can have a certain probability P(A), and after it happened, this reduces to 0 or 1. So P(A) is not really a physical value that can be assigned to a spacetime point, as can, for instance, a temperature or something. P(A) not being a physical field, and always having an epistic component to it, it is not entirely evident how to extend the definition of local to a stochastic theory. However, I'd concur that the Bell definition is by far the most obvious and natural extension of it. I grant that and I do not dispute its reasonableness. But we have to be aware that, outside of the framework of a strictly deterministic theory, the concept of "locality" is not really defined, and hence a choice is to be made.

What I wanted to point out simply is that Bell locality (which is such an extension of the definition of locality, and hence always has some arbitrary component to it over which one can discuss) COINCIDES with the usual word local, when the underlying theory is deterministic and all probabilities are epistemic. And, moreover, in those cases where the underlying theory is not deterministic, we can MAKE it deterministic and still keep locality (in the usual sense) ; that's "Patrick's theorem".

So I READ Bell - even though he didn't have this in mind - as:

The experimental outcomes (or predictions) are COMPATIBLE with an underlying DETERMINISTIC, local theory.

I know that was not the original intention of Bell. If you want to, you can see it as kind of a coincidence, that, using the extension of the concept of local to include stochastic theories, that if such a stochastic theory satisfies it, it can be extended into a deterministic theory that is (normally) local.
If it is seen this way, then this is a rather unfortunate fact, because now the distinction between "fundamentally stochastic but Bell local" and "potentially underlying deterministic and local" is spoiled for ever, them being (by coincidence) equivalent statements.
But coincidence or not, they ARE equivalent statements.

But instead of whining over this (unfortunate) equivalence, which goes against the spirit of Bell, we can take it as an advantage. The nice thing about this is that you even don't have to have the theory. You just have to check whether the Bell conditions hold.
On data, or on the stochastic predictions of any theory. IF the Bell conditions hold (on the DATA or PREDICTIONS, not on the supposed machinery of a hypothetical theory), then these DATA OR PREDICTIONS can also be reproduced by a (potentially ugly) local deterministic theory. If not, then you won't find ANY such local deterministic theory, and hence also no Bell-local stochastic theory.
That's Bell's "lambda". (Completeness is of course defined by whatever particular candidate theory one is assessing.) To say that the probabilities in Bell Locality (which are always conditional on this lambda) are ignorance-based is to say that, really, there is some unknown fact which *determines* outcomes, but which is not contained in lambda (hence we only have probabilities, not determinate predictions). But this is all contradictory. That lambda provides a complete state description is *assumed*. You can't just come back later and say "well maybe really it doesn't, and the probabilites are really ignorance-based rather than fundamental". To say that is not some kind of objection to bell's locality criterion -- it's simply to change midstream what theory one is talking about. And if you're too scatterbrained to keep thinking about the same theory through the whole analysis, don't blame it on bell!

No, what I showed, long ago, is that you can EXTEND the lambda of any Bell local theory so as to make it completely deterministic, and that Bell locality is conserved under this operation. Whether you find this an attractive option, and whether the theory resulting has any esthetical or physical appeal is another matter, but it can be done.

So, again, I'm not making any REQUIREMENT of determinism. Maybe I formulated this badly, I didn't want to mean that Bell insisted on determinism. I'm just saying that the way Bell extended the concept of local (which holds for deterministic theories) to stochastic theories, AUTOMATICALLY IMPLIES that a deterministic, local theory is compatible with the predictions.

So, AFTER THE FACT, whether it was intended or not, Bell locality for stochastic theories is EQUIVALENT to requiring the potential of an underlying deterministic local theory.

As such (and probably my wordings were unfortunate), IT IS NOT A RESTRICTION to say that probabilities are ignorance-based in the discussion of Bell locality. Because even if initially they weren't thought to be so (and the theory was irreducibly stochastic), we can swap them for being so (and the NEW, equivalent, theory is now deterministic). So, when talking about Bell locality, there's no NEED (it is not a requirement) to talk about non-epistemic probabilities.
BTW, I have serious conceptual difficulties, as I told you already, with the concept of non-epistemic probabilities, without saying: "things happen". But happily, this concept is NOT NEEDED to discuss Bell's stuff. I'm not saying that it is a RESTRICTION. It is a CONSEQUENCE of the way Bell defined locality for stochastic theories.

And all this was not the point I wanted to make. I wanted to make the point that, PURELY HAVING A SET OF DATA, or HAVING A SET OF PREDICTIONS FROM A BLACK BOX, one can check them against the Bell inequalities. If they don't satisfy these, then THERE IS NO HOPE of finding *either* a Bell-local stochastic theory, OR an underlying local deterministic theory (both being equivalent).

This is because claims were made that the Bell inequalities were somehow based upon underlying physical assumptions of the existence of particles or so. Not at all. A set of DATA, from an experiment, can tell you whether, yes or no, there is ANY HOPE of obtaining them from a Bell-local stochastical theory, or from an underlying deterministic local theory. You do not have to make any assumptions of the physical nature of the cause of these data in order to establish this.
It would constitute a perfect Bell test.

The assumption of particles IS however made in NON-perfect Bell tests as they have been performed up to now, in order to CORRECT for the data (the "efficiency of detection" being intrinsically a particle-related concept).
This is why stochastic electrodynamics can still succeed in making equivalent predictions of the current non-perfect Bell tests. But the day that we will have data from a perfect Bell test, and where these corrections are not needed anymore, we don't need any assumption of particle or whatever in order to check the Bell inequalities. If they are violated, then we know that NO WAY these data are going to come out of a Bell-local stochastic theory, or out of a deterministic local theory.
 
Last edited:
  • #135
Careful said:
No, there are several possibilities : predeterminism (which could amount to abandoning local rotation invariance), or one could allow the virtual particle/antiparticles to travel FTL (which would violate Bell locality, but not locality).

If the mechanism is deterministic, then it is clearly non-local: something is traveling faster than light. If the theory is stochastic, then you are disputing the extension of the concept "local" (which has initially only a meaning for deterministic theories) the way Bell did it to "Bell-local".

So in fact you change the definition of "local" from the way Bell did it, for a stochastic theory. One has to be careful when doing that, not to end up with a definition which includes also faster-than-light telephones as being local, as do Rovelli and Smerlak for instance.
 
  • #136
ttn said:
[about MWI]
Right, which is why its predictions -- for what *actually happens* -- do not violate the inequalities. Of course, it also "predicts" that observers are systematically deluded into believing that there were definite measurement results at A and B, and that these delusional/fantasy results violate the inequalities. But since that is just delusional fantasy, and not the real state of things, there's no point talking about it.

Well, yes, I couldn't formulate it any better myself. I do not feel comfortable with this myself, you know, but of all options, it is the one I prefer. Having been deluded about so many things in my life :smile:, if my choice is:
1) I have to give up the assumption of an existing reality
2) I have to give up the assumption of locality (and hence of relativity)
3) I have to assume that I'm deluded about what reality is

then my personal experimental experience tells me that 3) is by far the most probable candidate :smile:

Now, the day that another theory comes along which explains all these things (including relativity) in a natural way, we can dispose of being deluded.
 
Last edited:
  • #137
**If the mechanism is deterministic, then it is clearly non-local: something is traveling faster than light. If the theory is stochastic, then you are disputing the extension of the concept "local" (which has initially only a meaning for deterministic theories) the way Bell did it to "Bell-local". **

(Corrections of terminology, sorry for this) Bell's definition of stochastic locality is fine (if it is not taken to imply the latter two conditions), however the no correlation assumption as well as the no conspiracy condition (known not to be satisfied in QFT) seem naive (especially in theories with random fields (!) such as is the case in thermal equilibrium states) - arguments for its defense can easily be logically turned against him, check out the paper of Morgan I cited before, replace here the variables a,b,c by what I called particle *measurements* (real ``no- hidden'' variables) and lambda, mu, nu by a set of possible Planckian oscillations (the real hidden variables), follow the argument and you will see what I meant before.
The Planckian observer sees a local word while the non-planckian observer does not; this is possible depending on your definition of particle (as a coarse grained concept) as well as on the correlations in the vacuum state for the Planckian degrees of freedom. The entire difficulty is of course to find a natural Planckian model, as well as a suitable definition of particle such that the vacuum state arises naturally as well as the predictions of QM do.


**
So in fact you change the definition of "local" from the way Bell did it, for a stochastic theory. One has to be careful when doing that, not to end up with a definition which includes also faster-than-light telephones as being local, as do Rovelli and Smerlak for instance. **

I do not know about Rovelli and Smerlak, but yes, the constraint - no information can travel faster than light (note : this will severely depend upon your notion of information itself) - will certainly chop away lots of possible models :smile:

To put it more to the edge, IF you take the idea of classical local evolution seriously as well as the idea of initial lack of knowledge of the state, then the notion of no conspiracy/no correlation is highly unnatural.

Cheers,

Careful
 
Last edited:
  • #138
vanesch said:
Well, yes, I couldn't formulate it any better myself. I do not feel comfortable with this myself, you know, but of all options, it is the one I prefer. Having been deluded about so many things in my life :smile:, if my choice is:
1) I have to give up the assumption of an existing reality
2) I have to give up the assumption of relativity (and hence of relativity)
3) I have to assume that I'm deluded about what reality is

then my personal experimental experience tells me that 3) is by far the most probable candidate :smile:

Now, the day that another theory comes along which explains all these things (including relativity) in a natural way, we can dispose of being deluded.

:smile: :smile: You simply have to accept that non-local correlations have been build up by a local dynamics which are not entirely washed away (as Bell hopes), and cause these appearantly strange phenomena. Then, no blatant contradiction arises.

Careful
 
  • #139
vanesch said:
Well, yes, I couldn't formulate it any better myself. I do not feel comfortable with this myself, you know, but of all options, it is the one I prefer. Having been deluded about so many things in my life :smile:, if my choice is:
1) I have to give up the assumption of an existing reality
2) I have to give up the assumption of locality (and hence of relativity)
3) I have to assume that I'm deluded about what reality is

then my personal experimental experience tells me that 3) is by far the most probable candidate :smile:

Just for the record, you're aware that the "rolling" in the rofl matches perfectly the structure of the logic here: everything you've seen with your eyes all your life convinces you that the best option is to reject as fantasy/delusion what you see with your eyes...
 
  • #140
**
Suppose that particles are all composites, and that in interactions, they are neither created nor destroyed, except in pairs of particle / antiparticle (and then only in virtual form). Then one can rewrite the usual particle interactions in terms of particles in a Bohmian fashion. That is, there will be no particle creation / annihilation, so the whole thing will look again like QM, a problem that Bohmian mechanics has provided a remotely convincing interpretation. **

As far as I recall, the defined worldlines are not Lorentz invariant, i.e. frame dependent; it seems impossible to me to reconcile that with any notion of objective reality. It is also clear that interactions change the particle number, I guess you would have to introduce then a stochastic element in the dynamics which is again dependent upon your choice of foliation as well as a seemingly (limited) ad hoc choice of *when* the particles of the incoming species disappear and the others appear. Or is there some way to avoid these issues recently ?

Careful
 
  • #141
ttn said:
Just for the record, you're aware that the "rolling" in the rofl matches perfectly the structure of the logic here: everything you've seen with your eyes all your life convinces you that the best option is to reject as fantasy/delusion what you see with your eyes...

You perfectly understood the message now. :biggrin:
 
Last edited:
  • #142
vanesch said:
What I wanted to point out simply is that Bell locality (which is such an extension of the definition of locality, and hence always has some arbitrary component to it over which one can discuss) COINCIDES with the usual word local, when the underlying theory is deterministic and all probabilities are epistemic. And, moreover, in those cases where the underlying theory is not deterministic, we can MAKE it deterministic and still keep locality (in the usual sense) ; that's "Patrick's theorem".

So I READ Bell - even though he didn't have this in mind - as:

The experimental outcomes (or predictions) are COMPATIBLE with an underlying DETERMINISTIC, local theory.

Well, as you've said, we've been over this before. But I still completely fail to understand what you think the logic of your point is supposed to be. Yes, it's always possible to take a stochastic theory and add extra variables to make it deterministic. And for a Bell Local stochastic theory, the deterministic theory you make this way can also be Bell Local. (Note also that for *some* Nonlocal stochastic theories, you can make a Local deterministic theory. This is just what EPR hoped would be possible in regard to nonlocal-stochastic OQM.)

Determinism, though, remains a red herring. By the way, the perfect correlations predicted by QM in the EPR-Bohm setup already *require* determinism. No local *stochastic* theory can predict those perfect correlations, so if you want a local theory you already must have a deterministic theory. This is how Bell set things up in his earlier papers -- he assumed deterministic outcomes because determinism could be deduced *from* locality. Then, in later papers, he was more careful to stress that you don't need any assumption of determinism to get the inequality (an assumption he hadn't even made before, but still, stupid people got this in their heads and couldn't get it out).

You make a different argument for determinism, which is just that it's always possible to make a deterministic theory (from a stochastic one). The question is: so what? You suggest that this means that, really, all Bell proved is that theories that "are COMPATIBLE with an underlying DETERMINISTIC, local theory" must satisfy the inequality. But why in the world would you say it this way? It's simply *less clear*, *less illuminating* than my formulation, which I guess you also agree is true: Bell proved that ALL LOCAL THEORIES (whether deterministic or not) must satisfy the inequality.

When you bring in determinism, you make it *sound* like determinism is some extra assumption that one needs to derive a Bell inequality. And that simply is not true. You can deduce determinism from locality if you want. Or you can just arbitrarily refuse to consider stochastic theories (which is basically what you do -- whenever a stochastic theory is put on the table, you want to say "no, let's replace this with a deterministic theory by adding variables"). But this is all just completely beside the point.

The only important question is: does Bell Locality make sense (as a formalization of relativity's prohibition on superluminal causation)? If it does, then, because the inequalities follow from *just this def'n of locality* there is a serious problem with relativity (assuing the experiments are telling us what we think they're telling us). Of course, one could also say: no, Bell's def'n of locality just doesn't make sense. Which is what you seem to want to be saying, but then you never actually give an argument for that. Instead, you just refuse to *talk* about whether it makes sense for stochastic theories, by immediately switching from any proposed stochastic theory to some deterministic theory. But refusing to address a certain question is not the same as proving that its answer is "no" (i.e., "no, bell locality does *not* make sense as a formalization of ... for stochastic theories").


The nice thing about this is that you even don't have to have the theory. You just have to check whether the Bell conditions hold.
On data, or on the stochastic predictions of any theory. IF the Bell conditions hold (on the DATA or PREDICTIONS, not on the supposed machinery of a hypothetical theory), then these DATA OR PREDICTIONS can also be reproduced by a (potentially ugly) local deterministic theory. If not, then you won't find ANY such local deterministic theory, and hence also no Bell-local stochastic theory.

Sure, once you accept that Bell Locality --> the Bell Inequalities, then you no longer need to talk about any specific candidate theory, etc. You can just see if the inequalities are respected. That's the whole point of the *theorem*, right? But I am trying to clarify the proof of the theorem (we agree about what options exist once you accept it), because that's what you and others seem to muddy with statements that, e.g., Bell made some assumption about "particles" in getting from Locality to the Inequalities... or Bell made some assumption about determinism in getting from Locality to the Inequalities. Both of these are *false*.




No, what I showed, long ago, is that you can EXTEND the lambda of any Bell local theory so as to make it completely deterministic, and that Bell locality is conserved under this operation. Whether you find this an attractive option, and whether the theory resulting has any esthetical or physical appeal is another matter, but it can be done.

Sure but who cares? It's just not relevant. And it fans the flames of the silly people who then say something stupid like "Aha, that's why OQM is local, because it isn't deterministic so Bell's Locality condition doesn't apply to it".



So, again, I'm not making any REQUIREMENT of determinism. Maybe I formulated this badly, I didn't want to mean that Bell insisted on determinism. I'm just saying that the way Bell extended the concept of local (which holds for deterministic theories) to stochastic theories, AUTOMATICALLY IMPLIES that a deterministic, local theory is compatible with the predictions.

But this has nothing to do with "the way Bell extended the concept of local ... to stochastic theories"! Forget about locality. You can always add variables to a stochastic theory and make a new deterministic theory. I don't think it's surprising that, say, stochastic theories about particles might still be about particles even after you add these extra variables to construct a deterministic theory. It's equally unsurprising that a stochastic theory that is *already* consistent with relativity, would remain so when you add extra variables. And surprising or not, it's simply not *relevant* to the question of whether Bell Locality *makes sense* as a definition of locality *for stochastic theories*. Are you saying that it doesn't -- because we never need to consider stochastic theories in the first place? That is a complete non-sequitur. We should just decide first whether you are or aren't willing to consider stochastic theories. If you're not willing, OK, then you just *assume* determinism and then there's no controversy that we can get a Bell Inequality. And if you are willing, do you accept Bell LOcality as a good def'n of local causality? If so, there's no controversy that we can get a Bell Inequality. But if not -- if you accept that stochastic theories should be considered, but don't think Bell Locality makes sense as a definition of local causality for them -- then there's something to discuss... But you'll have to start that discussion by saying what you think is *wrong* with Bell Locality. And anyway, this doesn't seem to be the logical peg you hang your hat on -- instead you exit at the first step and just refuse to consider stochastic theories (and then somehow confuse yourself into thinking you've done something else?).




As such (and probably my wordings were unfortunate), IT IS NOT A RESTRICTION to say that probabilities are ignorance-based in the discussion of Bell locality. Because even if initially they weren't thought to be so (and the theory was irreducibly stochastic), we can swap them for being so (and the NEW, equivalent, theory is now deterministic). So, when talking about Bell locality, there's no NEED (it is not a requirement) to talk about non-epistemic probabilities.

Look, I agree with you about the facts here. It's true that no generality is lost by just assuming determinism from the beginning. But you must be aware of the long history of people not understanding this, and thinking that we get to *choose* whether to reject "locality" or "determinism", and then they opt for the latter and consider it some kind of proof of Bohr over Einstein. It is to answer this wrong argument that I am going out of my way to stress that we do *not* need to assume determinism to get a Bell inequality. You don't actually disagree with me here, do you?


BTW, I have serious conceptual difficulties, as I told you already, with the concept of non-epistemic probabilities, without saying: "things happen". But happily, this concept is NOT NEEDED to discuss Bell's stuff. I'm not saying that it is a RESTRICTION. It is a CONSEQUENCE of the way Bell defined locality for stochastic theories.

OK, good. So then the *only* question is: is the way Bell defined locality for stochastic theories *valid*? Is it *true* that any theory violating Bell Locality thereby isn't respecting "local causality" or whatever exactly we think relativity requires by way of no-superluminal-causation?


And all this was not the point I wanted to make. I wanted to make the point that, PURELY HAVING A SET OF DATA, or HAVING A SET OF PREDICTIONS FROM A BLACK BOX, one can check them against the Bell inequalities. If they don't satisfy these, then THERE IS NO HOPE of finding *either* a Bell-local stochastic theory, OR an underlying local deterministic theory (both being equivalent).

That is exactly right. But I think you can only really grasp this *after* you understand Bell's Theorem -- in particular, after you understand that the inequalities follow from Locality *alone* (no other assumptions like "determinism" or "particles" or "peanut butter").
 
  • #143
Careful said:
To put it more to the edge, IF you take the idea of classical local evolution seriously as well as the idea of initial lack of knowledge of the state, then the notion of stochastic Bell locality is highly unnatural.

Uh, that is not true. For a *deterministic* theory with local evolution, Bell's locality can be shown to be correct. It is for "irreducibly stochastic" theories (where the probabilities are hence NOT due to lack of knowledge) that the issue is more involved.

This is as simple as it is solid.

Let us assume a deterministic theory. I take it that you accept "locality" to be such, that if we have an outcome at event A, (say, A+ or A-), that whether it is A+ or A- is entirely determined by the objectively real things on a spacelike hypersurface, confined to the past lightcone of A. Let us call all these things "T". So there is a function, A(T) which is + or which is -, right ?
Ok, now let us include one more thing: there is a choice made, in A's past lightcone, of one single item (the setting of the analyser angle, say). Now, of course, in predeterminism, even this setting is of course a function of T, but we will assume (unless this is the point where you want to attack Bell), that there is an element of free choice for this variable, which we call a, and which "comes in from the heavens".
So in fact, the outcome at A is a function of T and of this variable a.
We can write this in another way: we can write a function P(A | a, T), such that, if A is to be +, given a and T, this gives P(A+ | a,T) = 1 and Pa(A- | a,T) = 0, or of course vice versa.
So the function Pa(A | a,T) is 0 or 1, and is a (trivial) probability distribution over {A+,A-}.
Same for {B+,B-} and another function Pb(B|b,T).

Clearly, the correlation between the results at A and B is given by:

Pab(A,B | a,b,T) = Pa(A|a,T) Pb(B|b,T)

This can be checked for the 4 possible cases A+B+, A+B-...
and it is either 1 or 0 (which is obvious, given the deterministic character of the theory).

Assume now that we have ignorance over T, which is described by a probability distribution Pt(T).

Evidently the T-weighted correlation is now:

Pabt(A,B|a,b) = integral dT Pt(T) Pa(A|a,T) Pb(B|b,T)

This is Bell's starting point, and it is from this point that, for instance, the Clauser-Holt-Horne-Shimony inequality can be derived. All that is needed is the above form.

Now, Bell extends this to also inherently stochastical theories, where the Pa and Pb functions are still non-trivial probability distributions (irreducibly stochastic), but it can easily be shown (what I called "patrick's theorem") that one can then extend T to T', with extra quantities, such that the new Pa and Pb ARE trivial again (and the new theory hence deterministic).

As I said, the only "loophole" in this business is pre-determination of the "free choices" of a and b. The problem with that loophole is that it also allows you to say that a FTL telephone is "local" because all it will say on your side is already predetermined since the Big Bang.

So I don't see how, apart from predetermination (and then we can go home, because everything can happen and all that is written in a big catalogue of events somewhere), a local, deterministic theory can violate, say, the CHHS inequality for instance (as it is for quantum predictions).

At least if you agree upon the definition of a local deterministic theory we had above (namely, that what happens at an event is fully determined by what "is" in its past lightcone, and not outside of it, so that the choice of b cannot change the outcome at A).
 
  • #144
** Uh, that is not true. For a *deterministic* theory with local evolution, Bell's locality can be shown to be correct. It is for "irreducibly stochastic" theories (where the probabilities are hence NOT due to lack of knowledge) that the issue is more involved. **


You precisely understand where the subtlety enters (see later) - I corrected my previous abuse of language (again sorry for this, it has been a while that I used this terminology) -. It is very natural that spacelike correlations between hidden variables exist a priori given *local* interaction in their past (draw a diagram of lightcones if you want to see this) - there is no appearent reason why all this should be washed away.


**Ok, now let us include one more thing: there is a choice made, in A's past lightcone, of one single item (the setting of the analyser angle, say). Now, of course, in predeterminism, even this setting is of course a function of T, but we will assume (unless this is the point where you want to attack Bell), that there is an element of free choice for this variable, which we call a, and which "comes in from the heavens". **

Right, by making the assumption of free will in the detector settings, you throw determinism out of the window by hand. By assuming no correlations between spacelike separated events, you assume that the correlations created by interactions in the past are more or less washed out. This point is as old as the street and has basically been handwavingly dismissed (with a flawed argumentation) by Bell.

Now, such correlations might not be very visible when we try to determine the initial state (since one can only measure local statistical properties) but might be deeply hidden at the Planckian level. And I do not attack Bell, I simply point out that if you take classical thinking seriously, there is no a priori reason to conclude that the Bell inequalities (whose derivation itself denies this) show in any way that it is forbidden.

People like ttn have good right to believe whatever they want to, but there exist classical local models which violate the Bell inequaties blatantly (but are somewhat unnatural); it however does not testify of good taste to call such people silly, stupid or whatever - one should indeed take the theorem with its assumptions as it stands and reason on basis of logic.

The problem is all this discussion it that people start from free will, and a priori negate that what they want to disprove in the first place.

Careful
 
Last edited:
  • #145
ttn said:
No local *stochastic* theory can predict those perfect correlations, so if you want a local theory you already must have a deterministic theory.

No, and that's the point. It all depends what you call "local" for a stochastic theory. Bell choose one definition (as I said, very reasonable). But it doesn't NEED to be so.
If something is "irreducibly random", then "things can happen". There can be something that looks like a conspiration, but there's no way of telling.

You make a different argument for determinism, which is just that it's always possible to make a deterministic theory (from a stochastic one). The question is: so what? You suggest that this means that, really, all Bell proved is that theories that "are COMPATIBLE with an underlying DETERMINISTIC, local theory" must satisfy the inequality. But why in the world would you say it this way? It's simply *less clear*, *less illuminating* than my formulation, which I guess you also agree is true: Bell proved that ALL LOCAL THEORIES (whether deterministic or not) must satisfy the inequality.

No, I think he didn't PROVE it, he DEFINED it that way. He defined locality for stochastic theories in such a way that I CAN FIND AN underlying deterministic theory. I could define it, for instance, as being *information local*. That's ANOTHER definition of locality for a stochastic theory, it is SUFFICIENT for relativity's sake, and it is LESS SEVERE than Bell locality.
Quantum theory, for instance, PURELY REGARDED AS AN ALGORITHM TO CALCULATE PROBABILITIES OF OUTCOMES, and not regarded as a description of nature, satisfies information locality. It is another way of defining locality for a stochastic theory (an option which doesn't exist for deterministic theories).

The only important question is: does Bell Locality make sense (as a formalization of relativity's prohibition on superluminal causation)? If it does, then, because the inequalities follow from *just this def'n of locality* there is a serious problem with relativity (assuing the experiments are telling us what we think they're telling us). Of course, one could also say: no, Bell's def'n of locality just doesn't make sense. Which is what you seem to want to be saying, but then you never actually give an argument for that.

I'm saying that Bell locality is ONE possible definition of locality for a stochastic theory. It is a reasonable one, but others are possible too, such as information locality. A stochastic theory (IMO) doesn't give an account of reality, but is just an algorithm to help you calculate probabilities of outcomes. There are no "beables" in a stochastic theory, and probabilities are not physical quantities in the same way as fields are. It is not clear what is "real" in a stochastic theory. So "information locality" can do, for instance.

So I consider Bell's work as having mainly a result for the class of deterministic theories, which DO say something about the "reality out there".

Sure, once you accept that Bell Locality --> the Bell Inequalities, then you no longer need to talk about any specific candidate theory, etc. You can just see if the inequalities are respected. That's the whole point of the *theorem*, right? But I am trying to clarify the proof of the theorem (we agree about what options exist once you accept it), because that's what you and others seem to muddy with statements that, e.g., Bell made some assumption about "particles" in getting from Locality to the Inequalities... or Bell made some assumption about determinism in getting from Locality to the Inequalities. Both of these are *false*.

Well, I was trying to REFUTE the first claim (about the particles), but then you came in and spoiled it

I'm not claiming that Bell assumed determinism, I'm saying he EXTENDED the definition of "locality" (which is only clear for deterministic theories) to the realm of stochastic theories. He did this in a reasonable way, but there are other definitions possible. The funny thing about his definition is that the class of stochastic theories it allows ARE COMPATIBLE with underlying local deterministic theories. Now, what came first, the egg or the chicken, is now open to debate.

If I take "information locality" as the definition of locality for a stochastic theory, then the option of an underlying local deterministic theory is NOT open anymore.

Sure but who cares? It's just not relevant. And it fans the flames of the silly people who then say something stupid like "Aha, that's why OQM is local, because it isn't deterministic so Bell's Locality condition doesn't apply to it".

Well, if quantum theory is seen as an ALGORITHM which helps you calculate probabilities of outcomes of measurement, and doesn't have any pretention of giving an account of "the true nature of nature", then this statement is in a way correct. Clearly, it is an algorithm which is not Bell local, but if its pretention is only to be an ALGORITHM and not a DESCRIPTION of nature, then that can do. Given that its predictions are not Bell local, we know that we will not find a Bell local stochastic theory, or a local deterministic theory that can make the same predictions. So Bell locality would have been nice to have, but we don't. That's all.

We should just decide first whether you are or aren't willing to consider stochastic theories.

I can only assume stochastic theories as ALGORITHMS, not as ontological descriptions of nature. "probability" is, to me, not a physical quantity an sich. It is only something that pertains to perception, or to information, or things like that. It is not a field, like "temperature" or "electromagnetic potential" or something. There are physical quantities that look like probabilities, such as "ratios of outcomes of experiment".

But if not -- if you accept that stochastic theories should be considered, but don't think Bell Locality makes sense as a definition of local causality for them -- then there's something to discuss... But you'll have to start that discussion by saying what you think is *wrong* with Bell Locality.

There's nothing WRONG with Bell locality, except that I could choose another definition for a stochastic theory, such as information locality, given that I don't think that a stochastic theory gives an account of NATURE, but is just a trick to calculate probabilities of outcomes. Information locality is less severe than Bell locality (from Bell locality follows information locality, but not vice versa), and is SUFFICIENT to avoid FTL paradoxes.

To me, there's a huge difference between deterministic theories (which have the potential of describing nature), and stochastic theories (which are just algorithms). So Bell locality does have a function: it indicates us what are the possibilities for an underlying local deterministic theories. It would be nice to have it, then we KNOW that we can look for a local, underlying deterministic theory. But it is not because we don't have it, that ALL FORMS OF LOCALITY are now dead. The only thing which is really dead is an ontological (hence deterministic) local description of nature. But there's still another form of locality (the only one that would REALLY put relativity in difficulties), which can still be valid: information locality.

Look, I agree with you about the facts here. It's true that no generality is lost by just assuming determinism from the beginning. But you must be aware of the long history of people not understanding this, and thinking that we get to *choose* whether to reject "locality" or "determinism", and then they opt for the latter and consider it some kind of proof of Bohr over Einstein. It is to answer this wrong argument that I am going out of my way to stress that we do *not* need to assume determinism to get a Bell inequality. You don't actually disagree with me here, do you?

Well, I'm half way between! As I said, I think that it is nice to have determinism (even if it is HIDDEN determinism, in that there are physical reasons so that we never have access to it in practice). I think it is the only sound way of hoping to have an ontological description of nature. As such, Bell locality is great.

But when we consider stochastic theories, which are just ALGORITHMS, then I don't think we have to take Bell locality as the requirement. Information locality is sufficient, because it is sufficient to avoid the paradoxes in relativity (such as phoning to your grandma to tell her not to marry your granddad). Of course the price to pay is that there won't be an ontological description of nature behind it, but ok, so be it.

OK, good. So then the *only* question is: is the way Bell defined locality for stochastic theories *valid*? Is it *true* that any theory violating Bell Locality thereby isn't respecting "local causality" or whatever exactly we think relativity requires by way of no-superluminal-causation?

It depends whether you want to keep the possibility of the ontological description of nature. I would say that if you are (such as me) requiring this, then yes, Bell locality is a correct definition of locality. But if you can live with the fact that there is no ontological description of nature, and that you can only have an algorithm for "things that happen" then no, I don't think that Bell locality is a requirement. The only thing that REALLY gives a problem for relativity is information locality.

So all the time I'm saying that Bell locality is not required for a stochastical theory, I'm actually preaching against my own convictions. I think that Bell locality is required for a theory that gives an ontological description of nature. But as such, I cannot conceive irreducibly stochastic theories.
I can make a leap of conviction, say, and consider that there IS no ontological description of nature, but "things just happen" and we have only algorithms that give us probabilities of outcomes. What is "really out there" is then just a big catalogue of events, which just are, and with no a priori relationship between them. We are only lucky that there is SOMETHING that we can say as we experience our voyage through this catalogue of events, which is given by our irreducibly stochastic theories. As these theories don't give us any cause-effect relationship, they can just as well correctly describe "conspiracies" of "things that happen". In that case, we can STILL keep relativity, by only requiring signal locality.
 
Last edited:
  • #146
Careful said:
Right, by making the assumption of free will in the detector settings, you throw determinism out of the window by hand. By assuming no correlations between spacelike separated events, you assume that the correlations created by interactions in the past are more or less washed out. This point is as old as the street and has basically been handwavingly dismissed (with a flawed argumentation) by Bell.

Mmm, I see. But that's a slippery slope, because if we cannot assume "independence of choice" by an experimenter, and assume that there are exactly the right choices made in the hugely complicated system of the two human observers, to make the correlations come out right, then ANYTHING GOES. ALL experimental data we have somehow, which have indicated us some kind of causal relationship and from which we deduced some laws of nature, is somehow based upon the assumption that we had "fair samples". If we have to assume that all this can be due to spurious correlations of former interactions in the common past lightcones of all that, then EVEN things like measuring the speed of light (where there is a correlation between sending the lightpulse, and receiving it) can be totally wrong. As such, our deduction of relativity might even be entirely wrong - and as such, there's no issue with locality in the first place :-)

Although in principle you are right of course, it is hard to conceive how totally different mechanisms (like having some electronic noise, or a human being, or, I don't know, a rat in a cage or whatever) making the choice of the settings of the polarizer will work out ALWAYS in the right way as to make the right correlations come out. And these subtle correlations are predicted correctly by a theory which IGNORES all this (quantum theory).

A hard-to-believe conspiracy.

The problem is all this discussion it that people start from free will, and a priori negate that what they want to disprove in the first place.

The point is not so much "free will". The point is that we could set up the selection mechanism for the angle in miriads of ways, as I said, and each time this must come out right ?
In other words, the rat will push the same button as the electronic noise in the resistor, as the human being, as the...
There are so many ways to select something pseudo-randomly, that it is hard to believe that ALL these different ways would be correlated in exactly the same way. And IF it is the case, then you can throw in the dustbin about all experimental results we have, for they might all be consequences of these spurious correlations.
So the only way to make any progress is to assume statistical independence of these things. If that is wrong, then astrology might in fact be much closer to the truth than 400 years of science.
 
  • #147
Careful said:
People like ttn have good right to believe whatever they want to, but there exist classical local models which violate the Bell inequaties blatantly (but are somewhat unnatural); ...

Oh really? Can you give an example? Or do you just have in mind the super-determinism scenario, in which you reject the idea of a free choice of parameter settings? But again, that wouldn't be a local model which violates the Bell inequalities; it would be a reason why the Bell inequalities can never be experimentally tested. So I presume you have in mind exactly what you said: a "classical local model which violates the Bell inequalities blatantly". And since Bell's theorem proves this is impossible, I'd be very interested to see your alleged counterexample.
 
  • #148
** Mmm, I see. But that's a slippery slope, because if we cannot assume "independence of choice" by an experimenter, and assume that there are exactly the right choices made in the hugely complicated system of the two human observers, to make the correlations come out right, then ANYTHING GOES. **

A few notes :
(a) first of all we simply don't know whether it is slippery or not, we basically have no intuition about the effective dynamics of a deterministic system scaled up by a factor of 10^15.
(b) It could very well be that this scaled up dynamics has only a few attractors (in terms of the correlation functions) - so then the result would be natural.
(c) the observers do not need to be human :smile:
(d) the no FTL information theorem would certainly put a severe constraint (see your later objections towards relativity).

Basically, I have not a clue, but it certainly deserves to be studied since it seems to be an interesting thing to know.

**
A hard-to-believe conspiracy.
**

Again, perhaps not. The perfect QM results exceed the CHSH inequalities by merely some 30 percent (sorry, did not take a calculator :smile: ). I can imagine that on scales very small compared to the speed of light this could not be an unreasonable figure.

**
So the only way to make any progress is to assume statistical independence of these things. If that is wrong, then astrology might in fact be much closer to the truth than 400 years of science. **

Haha, well show me a convincing mathematical argument that local deterministic systems should behave this way.

Well Patrick, now the question is whether I believe this or not. The thing is I don't know, QM is certainly too weird (and totally incompatible with GR) and nobody virtually knows anything about natural deterministic scenario's to produce such non-local effects. Philosophically, it might seem hard to imagine a world in which free will is an illusion, but it could be so. At least, one would have a local *mechanism* to understand the correlations. In this respect I find the irreducible stochastic models also very interesting, free will being poored in locally :wink:

All I wanted to point out really is that if you examine the Bell inequalities really closely - one can go either way. All these discussions are just philosophy and religion and useless in some way.

Careful
 
Last edited:
  • #149
vanesch said:
No, and that's the point. It all depends what you call "local" for a stochastic theory. Bell choose one definition (as I said, very reasonable). But it doesn't NEED to be so.

Can you propose some other good definition of local causality for stochastic theories? And don't tell me "signal/info locality" -- that's a different idea, right? Orthodox QM (treating the wf as a complete description of the ontology) and Bohmian Mechanics are both "signal/info local", yet clearly they are both nonlocal at a deeper level. They both involve FTL causation.


If something is "irreducibly random", then "things can happen". There can be something that looks like a conspiration, but there's no way of telling.

No, this is sliding from talking about a theory's fundamental dynamical probabilities, to talkign about empirical frequencies or something. As long as you remember you're talking about some particular candidate theory, there *is* a way "of telling". This is just exactly what a theory tells us. It tells us what various happenings depend on. It's true that if you just see some event happen, there's no way a priori to know what caused it. But, in the context of a proposed theory, there is no such problem. A theory tells us what caused it (even if the explanation is merely stochastic) by telling us what the event (or its probability) *depends on* -- and then it makes sense to ask (still in the context of that theory) whether that dependence is or isn't local.



No, I think he didn't PROVE it, he DEFINED it that way. He defined locality for stochastic theories in such a way that I CAN FIND AN underlying deterministic theory.

No, he defined it the way he defined it: stuff outside the past light cone shouldn't affect the probabilities the theory assigns to events. It is also, incidentally, true that for any stochastic theory you can find an underlying deterministic theory. But that really has nothing to do with locality or Bell's definition thereof.


I could define it, for instance, as being *information local*. That's ANOTHER definition of locality for a stochastic theory, it is SUFFICIENT for relativity's sake, and it is LESS SEVERE than Bell locality.

What do you mean it's sufficient? Who says? So Bohmian Mechanics is then consistent with relativity? Why in the world, then, would YOU believe in MWI rather than Bohm?!?


Quantum theory, for instance, PURELY REGARDED AS AN ALGORITHM TO CALCULATE PROBABILITIES OF OUTCOMES, and not regarded as a description of nature, satisfies information locality.

Quantum theory so regarded isn't a theory.


It is another way of defining locality for a stochastic theory (an option which doesn't exist for deterministic theories).

Huh? Info/Signal locality is just a constraint on the predictions of the theory (it has nothing to do with the underlying guts/mechanics of the theory). What's the problem applying it to deterministic theories? Those too make predictions, yes?



A stochastic theory (IMO) doesn't give an account of reality, but is just an algorithm to help you calculate probabilities of outcomes. There are no "beables" in a stochastic theory, and probabilities are not physical quantities in the same way as fields are. It is not clear what is "real" in a stochastic theory. So "information locality" can do, for instance.

You're equivocating between two very different things. Stochastic doesn't mean "has no ontology". If you don't think a stochastic theory can have an ontology (fields or whatever) what the heck is OQM?


So I consider Bell's work as having mainly a result for the class of deterministic theories, which DO say something about the "reality out there".

Whether the laws are deterministic or not, is a very different question from whether or not there's a "reality out there." If you really don't make this distinction, it explains why you've been so resistant to understanding Bell Locality correctly. Because even *talking* about Local Causality (which Bell Locality tries to make mathematically precise) obviously presupposes that there's a "reality out there" -- but then you think this already means we presuppose determinism and disallow stochasticity. No wonder you're confused...



Well, I was trying to REFUTE the first claim (about the particles), but then you came in and spoiled it

Well, refute it the right way next time then! o:)


I'm not claiming that Bell assumed determinism, I'm saying he EXTENDED the definition of "locality" (which is only clear for deterministic theories) to the realm of stochastic theories. He did this in a reasonable way, but there are other definitions possible. The funny thing about his definition is that the class of stochastic theories it allows ARE COMPATIBLE with underlying local deterministic theories.

But it's not at all a funny thing *about his definition*. It's just a general point that you can never really have good reason to believe in irreducible stochasticness -- you can *always* get rid of this in favor of determinism by adding variables. And if you restrict your attention to locally causal theories, this general point remains true (of course). But you seem to think this is some kind of skeleton in the closet of Bell's definition. I just don't follow that at all.



If I take "information locality" as the definition of locality for a stochastic theory, then the option of an underlying local deterministic theory is NOT open anymore.

Please. Obviously, if you switch the definition of 'local' between the first and second half of a sentence, you can say all kinds of apparently-interesting (but actually false) things.



Well, if quantum theory is seen as an ALGORITHM which helps you calculate probabilities of outcomes of measurement, and doesn't have any pretention of giving an account of "the true nature of nature", then this statement is in a way correct. Clearly, it is an algorithm which is not Bell local, but if its pretention is only to be an ALGORITHM and not a DESCRIPTION of nature, then that can do.

You're still missing the point that Bell Locality requires a complete state specification (lambda). So if you take seriously the idea that the quantum formalism is just a mere algorithm which doesn't make any claims about what does or doesn't exist, then it IS NOT BELL LOCAL. You can't even ask if it's bell local. It's not yet a *theory* in the sense required to apply Bell's criterion.


Given that its predictions are not Bell local

That phrase makes no sense. It isn't predictions that are or aren't Bell Local, it's theories. What you can say (and what you probably meant) is that, if the predictions violate the inequalities, then you know that there is no Bell Local theory which can make those predictions.


I can only assume stochastic theories as ALGORITHMS, not as ontological descriptions of nature. "probability" is, to me, not a physical quantity an sich. It is only something that pertains to perception, or to information, or things like that.

In other words, you *always* assume that probabilities are not fundamental. In other words, you refuse a priori to consider the possibility of a genuinely stochastic theory. Which, as we agree, turns out not to matter one way or the other -- but when you are explaining things to people it is extremely misleading to put it this way. Someone who doesn't know about "Patrick's Theorem" (which I think was actually proved by Arthur Fine in '82, though it's really a pretty obvious point so I'm sure people knew it before then) might think, based on your way of phrasing this stuff, that we are left with a choice about whether to reject locality or determinism in the face of the Bell-inequality-violating data. It's the same as the confusion that is caused by this stupid recent terminology "local realism." What the hell is "realism"? Somebody tell me please what "realism" is assumed by Bell in deriving the inequality. There isn't any -- at least, not any that can be remotely reasonably denied. Yet still the language caught on, and so now everybody thinks we *either* get to reject locality (which everybody says is crazy, because that means rejecting relativity) *or* reject "realism" (which therefore everybody is in favor of even though none of them know what the hell they mean by it!).




To me, there's a huge difference between deterministic theories (which have the potential of describing nature), and stochastic theories (which are just algorithms).

Repeating now, but no, that is not what the terms "deterministic" and "stochastic" mean.



So Bell locality does have a function: it indicates us what are the possibilities for an underlying local deterministic theories. It would be nice to have it, then we KNOW that we can look for a local, underlying deterministic theory. But it is not because we don't have it, that ALL FORMS OF LOCALITY are now dead. The only thing which is really dead is an ontological (hence deterministic) local description of nature. But there's still another form of locality (the only one that would REALLY put relativity in difficulties), which can still be valid: information locality.

"ontological (hence deterministic)"? Tsk tsk.

But let me repeat a crucial question here. If the lesson from all of this is that Bell Locality is *too strong*, and that *really* all relativity requires is *signal locality* then WHAT OBJECTION COULD YOU POSSIBLY HAVE AGAINST BOHMIAN MECHANICS? This position renders Bohmian Mechanics "local" -- as local as it needs to be to be consistent with relativity. And then why, please tell me, would any remotely sane person not opt for Bohm over OQM, MWI, and all other options? Leaving aside the issue of locality, Bohm is *clearly* the most reasonable option. So if you want to redefine locality (or more precisely, the requirements of relativity) in a way that removes this one possible objection to Bohm (that it's nonlocal) then what objection remains? Why do you opt for MWI rather than Bohm if you think that all relativity really requires is signal locality.
 
  • #150
http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/qm-bohm/

"In Bohmian mechanics a system of particles is described in part by its wave function, evolving, as usual, according to Schrödinger's equation. However, the wave function provides only a partial description of the system. This description is completed by the specification of the actual positions of the particles..."

Particles, particles, particles. When you realize that a quantum isn't a particle, the particles really catch your eye.
 
Last edited:
Back
Top