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ovais

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- TL;DR Summary
- The Kelvin temperature (T) was not introduced during the time of Charles, so there was no definition of absolute temperature T during that time how then Charles Proposed that at constant pressure Volume (V);of gas is directly proportional to it's absolute temperature T( V/T= constant) ?

Hi all

These days I am refreshing my knowledge on the concept and measurement of temperature. One way of defining temperature is in terms of how it is measured. This can be done by observing the variation of some properties which vary linearly with the hotness(temperature) of bodies. I studied about Celsius scale, Fahrenheit scale no problem. But when I come to study absolute scale few questions and doubts arises in my mind.

One of doubts is that Charles brought his law in 1780 and the absolute temperature scale by Lord Kelvin came is 1848 right? Now in introduction to Kelvin scale they are referring Charles Law and Boyles Law and use PV=nRT, to arrive at the fact that their is some minimum possible temperature and if we extrapolate the(pressure temperature) P -T graph graph then that minimum temperature is -273.15°C. Which is known to be Zero Kelvin.

This doesn't make sense to me because without Kelvin Scale we should not talk about Charles law at the first place. I must missing something. Any help will be highly appreciated!

Thanks a bunch:)

These days I am refreshing my knowledge on the concept and measurement of temperature. One way of defining temperature is in terms of how it is measured. This can be done by observing the variation of some properties which vary linearly with the hotness(temperature) of bodies. I studied about Celsius scale, Fahrenheit scale no problem. But when I come to study absolute scale few questions and doubts arises in my mind.

One of doubts is that Charles brought his law in 1780 and the absolute temperature scale by Lord Kelvin came is 1848 right? Now in introduction to Kelvin scale they are referring Charles Law and Boyles Law and use PV=nRT, to arrive at the fact that their is some minimum possible temperature and if we extrapolate the(pressure temperature) P -T graph graph then that minimum temperature is -273.15°C. Which is known to be Zero Kelvin.

This doesn't make sense to me because without Kelvin Scale we should not talk about Charles law at the first place. I must missing something. Any help will be highly appreciated!

Thanks a bunch:)

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