Jeff12341234 said:
I don't completely follow. I differentiated my answer above in terms of x and got sin(x)*cos(x)=0.
That's incorrect because you didn't differentiate the 1/(4y) and (1/8)tan
-1(y/2) terms. When you differentiate implicitly, you differentiate everything with respect to the same variable, x in this case.
You differentiated (1/2)sin
2(x) correctly, but to differentiate the terms in y you have to use the chain rule. So in the above, to differentiate 1/(4y) or (1/4)y
-1, with respect to x, you have
d/dx[(1/4)y
-1) = 1/4 * (-1) y
-2 * dy/dx. The last factor comes from the chain rule. The same sort of thing needs to happen with the tan
-1 term.
When you were learning about derivatives, there should have been a section on implicit differentiation.
Jeff12341234 said:
If I differentiate it implicitly with y as dependent I get -sin(x)*cos(x)*y2*(y2+4) What do I do with that?
I have no idea how you got this.
Jeff12341234 said:
Is there a link to a worked example where they start from an answer similar to what I got, then end up with Y=something, then plug that back into the original D.E. to check it?
The approach you want is applicable only if you have very simple equations in which you can actually solve for y. Many times this is not possible, but you can follow the approach I have suggested throughout this thread - use implicit differentiation. If you don' don't know it, or don't remember learning it, or have forgotten it, look it up.