How Do You Normalize a Non-Integrable Wave Function in Quantum Mechanics?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the normalization of non-integrable wave functions in quantum mechanics, specifically focusing on the Dirac delta normalization. The original poster is attempting to understand how to achieve the correct dimensionality for a wave function representing a free particle in one-dimensional space.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the normalization condition for wave functions, questioning the dimensionality of the Dirac delta function and its implications for normalization. The original poster considers different representations, such as momentum and wave vector, and raises concerns about achieving a usable wave function with appropriate dimensions.

Discussion Status

There is an ongoing exploration of different normalization approaches, including the suggestion to consider wave packets instead of plane waves. Some participants note the challenges of normalizing certain wave functions and discuss the implications of delta function normalization for non-integrable functions.

Contextual Notes

Participants express uncertainty regarding the definitions and distinctions between momentum space and coordinate space wave functions. There is also mention of the limitations of standard normalization methods for plane waves, which are not square integrable.

invisiblefrog
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I'm trying to understand what is the correct rule for the Dirac delta normalization of a non-integrable wave function, and can't seem to find any decent references. My issue is with achieving the proper dimensionality of the resulting wave function. This would be length-1/2 for the states of a free-particle in one-dimensional space that I am considering.

Generally the normalization condition is given as
[itex]\left\langle j | j' \right\rangle = \delta (j - j')[/itex]
where j is some kind of continuous index, but the question is what...
For example, http://physics.ucsd.edu/~emichels/FunkyQuantumConcepts.pdf goes for [itex]\left\langle p' | p \right\rangle = \delta (p - p')[/itex] which hardly seems satisfactory, as the units of the delta function are the inverse of those of its argument. I would want the normalization to be dimensionless, rather than equating it to something with units 1/momentum. After the calculations which logically follow from this premise, a wave function with dimensions [itex]\hbar ^{-1/2}[/itex] is obtained. If instead of momentum I use the wave vector (i.e. k if I am using [itex]e ^{ikx}[/itex]), then it ends up being dimensionless, which is equally undesirable.
What condition can be used to get a usable wave function with units of length-1/2?
 
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invisiblefrog said:
For example, http://physics.ucsd.edu/~emichels/FunkyQuantumConcepts.pdf goes for [itex]\left\langle p' | p \right\rangle = \delta (p - p')[/itex] which hardly seems satisfactory, as the units of the delta function are the inverse of those of its argument. I would want the normalization to be dimensionless, rather than equating it to something with units 1/momentum.
OK, why not use [itex]\left\langle x' | x \right\rangle = \delta (x - x')[/itex] ?
 
These are momentum space wave functions. They do not normalize to units length-1/2 as coordinate space wave functions do. ⟨p′|p⟩=δ(p−p) is correct.
 
Sorry, I should have been more clear about which functions I was trying to normalize. I am looking for a normalization constant A in [itex]\psi(x) = Ae^{ikx}[/itex]

BruceW said:
OK, why not use [itex]\left\langle x' | x \right\rangle = \delta (x - x')[/itex] ?

I don't understand how I could do this since x doesn't tell me something that distinguishes one state from another.

dauto said:
These are momentum space wave functions. They do not normalize to units length-1/2 as coordinate space wave functions do. ⟨p′|p⟩=δ(p−p) is correct.
The link I mentioned (page 68) defines the states it is normalizing [itex]\left|p\right\rangle = {\psi}_p (x) = Ne^{ipx/\hbar}[/itex] . Isn't it in coordinate space if it is a function of x?
 
invisiblefrog said:
Sorry, I should have been more clear about which functions I was trying to normalize. I am looking for a normalization constant A in [itex]\psi(x) = Ae^{ikx}[/itex]
hmm. you can't normalise this wavefunction though. So maybe the problem would be more clear if you used a wavefunction which can be normalised, like a wavepacket for example. (I'm still not entirely sure what your original question is, but maybe considering a wavepacket instead will help).
 
BruceW said:
hmm. you can't normalise this wavefunction though. So maybe the problem would be more clear if you used a wavefunction which can be normalised, like a wavepacket for example. (I'm still not entirely sure what your original question is, but maybe considering a wavepacket instead will help).

Certainly it is impossible to normalize the function in the standard way. The question is about a special procedure called "delta function normalization" which produces a normalization constant for these non-integrable functions. The inner product of the state with itself will be infinite, equal to some multiple of a delta function. The question is what that multiple should be.
 
invisiblefrog said:
Sorry, I should have been more clear about which functions I was trying to normalize. I am looking for a normalization constant A in [itex]\psi(x) = Ae^{ikx}[/itex]



I don't understand how I could do this since x doesn't tell me something that distinguishes one state from another.


The link I mentioned (page 68) defines the states it is normalizing [itex]\left|p\right\rangle = {\psi}_p (x) = Ne^{ipx/\hbar}[/itex] . Isn't it in coordinate space if it is a function of x?

The notation in the linked text is a bit sloppy in my opinion. An all too common problem with many quantum mechanical texts because, apparently, quantum mechanics isn't hard enough as is...

|p> and ψp(x) are not the same mathematical object even though they are both used to describe the same physical state, namely a plane wave. |p> is an eigenvector of the momentum operator. ψp(x) is a wavefunction. they are related to each other by <p|x> = ψp(x) where |x> is an eigenvector of the position operator. That explains why |p> and ψp(x) have different dimensions. Now, to answer your question, as pointed out by BruceW, the wave function e(ikx) cannot be normalized in the usual way because that function is not square integrable. The integral diverges which means that plane waves cannot be represented by an element of the Hilbert space. That should not be surprising since strictly speaking plane waves occupy the whole space and have infinite energy.
 
OK, thanks for the help guys, I must be doing it wrong. My apologies for demanding a normalization condition which is seemingly nonexistent.
 

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