How Does a Ball Behave on an Infinite Plane When the Plane Stops Abruptly?

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on the behavior of a ball on an infinite plane when the plane is abruptly stopped after being pulled at high speed. Participants explore how the ball behaves from different frames of reference, particularly focusing on the effects of friction and the relationship between linear and angular velocity. It is established that if the ball is not sliding, it will remain at rest relative to the wagon once it stops, regardless of prior motion. The conversation highlights the complexities of motion, including the impact of friction and the nuances of instantaneous stopping. Ultimately, the consensus is that the ball will always come to rest if the wagon is at rest, despite the initial conditions.
brainpushups
Messages
452
Reaction score
195
A person asked this question of me recently and it generated some discussion amongst the people in the room (many of whom had a limited background in physics). The original question went something like this: suppose that a ball is initially at rest in a wagon and the wagon is given a horizontal pull (so that the ball appears to roll to the back of the wagon). The wagon is then brought to an abrupt stop. Does the ball continue to roll backward relative to the wagon because that is the way the ball was spinning?

After some discussion the question was modified to be more like this:

Suppose that there is a ball which rests on an infinite horizontal plane. The plane is pulled horizontally so that it reaches a high speed with respect to its initial rest state and then the plane is brought abruptly to rest. What is the behavior of the ball a) as seen from the initial rest frame and b) as seen from the frame of the plane?

To avoid a rather lengthy first post I'll avoid writing my answer to the question for now, but I'm interested to see some responses. Kinda funny that this question is almost identical to Feynman's story of asking his father about the behavior of a ball in a wagon!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
brainpushups said:
The plane is pulled horizontally so that it reaches a high speed with respect to its initial rest state and then the plane is brought abruptly to rest.
Put a ball on a piece of paper, pull it out such that the ball starts rolling. What happens when the paper ends?
 
Have you tried this? It is hard to get consistent results. Also, the change in the friction coefficient would have an effect. If you try this you need to tape paper down to where the object will roll off.
 
It is sometimes possible to make arguments from symmetry. This saves a lot of useless calculation.

Adopt a frame of reference in which the ball is initially at rest. The only external force on the ball is friction with the bed of the wagon. The distance from bottom of ball to its center of mass is constant. The moment of inertia of the ball is constant. The mass of the ball is constant. This means that linear acceleration is proportional to force which is proportional to torque which is proportional to rotational acceleration.

It follows that regardless of the whether the ball is slipping or not and regardless of the value of the coefficient of static or dynamic friction and regardless of how the frictional force varies over time the ratio of linear velocity to angular velocity of the ball is fixed. Further, the ratio is negative -- if the ball is moving to the left, it is spinning clockwise and vice versa.

If the wagon is at rest and the ball is not sliding, the only consistent state is with the ball is also at rest. [If the ball were moving to the left and spinning clockwise, it would be sliding and slowing down. Same if it were moving to the right and spinning counter-clockwise. If it is at rest linearly then it is also not rotating].

It does not matter what pattern of motion the wagon and ball went through before the wagon returns to rest. Once it stops sliding, the ball will always end at rest if the wagon is at rest.
 
That's a great explanation. My response was similar (though not as eloquent), but I did not include the case of skidding. The explanation was not well received. I think this is probably because the intention of the question was to imagine that the wagon comes to rest instantaneously.
 
The rope is tied into the person (the load of 200 pounds) and the rope goes up from the person to a fixed pulley and back down to his hands. He hauls the rope to suspend himself in the air. What is the mechanical advantage of the system? The person will indeed only have to lift half of his body weight (roughly 100 pounds) because he now lessened the load by that same amount. This APPEARS to be a 2:1 because he can hold himself with half the force, but my question is: is that mechanical...
Hello everyone, Consider the problem in which a car is told to travel at 30 km/h for L kilometers and then at 60 km/h for another L kilometers. Next, you are asked to determine the average speed. My question is: although we know that the average speed in this case is the harmonic mean of the two speeds, is it also possible to state that the average speed over this 2L-kilometer stretch can be obtained as a weighted average of the two speeds? Best regards, DaTario
Some physics textbook writer told me that Newton's first law applies only on bodies that feel no interactions at all. He said that if a body is on rest or moves in constant velocity, there is no external force acting on it. But I have heard another form of the law that says the net force acting on a body must be zero. This means there is interactions involved after all. So which one is correct?
Back
Top