Karlisbad
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Whenever there's no acceleration then: (Geodesic equation)
\nabla _{u} u =0
where the covariant derivative includes "Christoffel symbols" so \Gamma_{kl}^{i} =0 for an Euclidean space-time..however when generalizing to a system under an acceleration then Gedesic equation becomes:
\nabla _{u} u -a^{\mu}=0 (foruth dimensional acceleration)
for a test particle \acute{{R}^{\mu}}_{\alpha \nu \beta} \acute{u}^{\alpha} \acute{x}^{\nu} \acute{u}^{\beta} = - \acute{f}^{\mu}
where does this 4-dimensional force come from??
but if you use "Weak field approximation" then the potential of the particle (and force) is: \Gamma^{i}_{00}
and using all that how you derive Einstein field equation so R_{ab}=0
\nabla _{u} u =0
where the covariant derivative includes "Christoffel symbols" so \Gamma_{kl}^{i} =0 for an Euclidean space-time..however when generalizing to a system under an acceleration then Gedesic equation becomes:
\nabla _{u} u -a^{\mu}=0 (foruth dimensional acceleration)
for a test particle \acute{{R}^{\mu}}_{\alpha \nu \beta} \acute{u}^{\alpha} \acute{x}^{\nu} \acute{u}^{\beta} = - \acute{f}^{\mu}
where does this 4-dimensional force come from??


and using all that how you derive Einstein field equation so R_{ab}=0