How Does High Temperature Affect Boson Number Density in Quantum Statistics?

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on deriving the boson number density formula under high temperature conditions, specifically when T (temperature) is significantly greater than μ (chemical potential). The resulting expression is n = (ζ(3)/(π²)) gT³, where ζ(3) is the Riemann zeta function evaluated at 3. Participants explored the integration process and the justification for neglecting the mass term in the square root during calculations, ultimately confirming that for T >> m, the approximation holds true.

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Homework Statement


Show that the number density for bosons if T (temperature) >>μ (chemical energy) is:
n= \frac{ζ(3)}{\pi^{2}} gT^{3}

(T>>m too)

Homework Equations



n= \frac{g}{2 \pi^{2}} \int_{m}^{∞} f(E) (E^{2}-m^{2})^{1/2} EdE
f(E)= \frac{1}{e^{\frac{E-μ}{T}} -1}
ζ(s)= \frac{1}{Γ(s)} \int_{0}^{∞} dx \frac{x^{s-1}}{e^{x}-1}

The Attempt at a Solution



I am taking:
n= \frac{g}{2 \pi^{2}} \int_{m}^{∞} \frac{1}{e^{\frac{E-μ}{T}} -1} (E^{2}-m^{2})^{1/2} EdE

Then use μ<<T to drop the part of it in the exponential

n= \frac{g}{2 \pi^{2}} \int_{m}^{∞} \frac{1}{e^{\frac{E}{T}} -1} (E^{2}-m^{2})^{1/2} EdE

If now I make a change of variables, x= \frac{E}{T} I think I'll get something similar to the definition of the zeta function... By this I have:
x= \frac{E}{T},
dE= T dx,
E^{2}= x^{2}T^{2}
and E= x T
The integration limits will be: x_{1}= \frac{m}{T}=0 and the upper one will be ∞...

n= \frac{g}{2 \pi^{2}} \int_{0}^{∞} \frac{1}{e^{x} -1} (x^{2}T^{2}-m^{2})^{1/2} xT^{2}dx

Now I can see that dropping m^{2} from the square root would give me the desired answer... However I don't know why can I?
alright m<<T, but T also gets multiplied by the variable...
If I'd drop it:

n= \frac{g}{2 \pi^{2}} \int_{0}^{∞} \frac{1}{e^{x} -1} xT(1-\frac{m^{2}}{x^{2}T^{2}})^{1/2} xT^{2}dx

n= \frac{g}{2 \pi^{2}} \int_{0}^{∞} \frac{1}{e^{x} -1} x^{2} T^{3}dx

n= \frac{g}{2 \pi^{2}} ζ(3) Γ(3) T^{3}dx

Γ(3)= 2
and I get the right result...By the assumption I could drop m^2 from the square root...
 
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Do we have a question here?
 
-haha that was a good one Dauto, by the fact that on paper I had done it wrong, while here I did it right-
But yes, there's still a question on...
"Now I can see that dropping m2 from the square root would give me the desired answer... However I don't know why can I?alright m<<T, but T also gets multiplied by the variable..."

Could I instead do:
(x^{2}T^{2}-m^{2})^{1/2}= T (x^{2}- m^{2}/T^{2})^{1/2}= T x
?
 
Since T>>m, the distribution has most of its weight on values E>>m. Therefore E^2 - m^2 ~ E^2 as far as that integral is concerned.
 

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