How Does Lorentz Theory Address the Concept of Velocity Becoming Zero?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on Lorentz theory and its treatment of velocity, specifically addressing how velocity (v) can become zero when an experiment moves along with the ether. The participant references W. Rindler's book "Special Relativity" and seeks clarification on the concept of measuring time (T2) directly with a clock when the relative velocity to the ether is zero. The conclusion drawn is that when the experiment moves with the ether, the relative velocity is effectively nullified, simplifying the measurement process.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Lorentz transformations
  • Familiarity with the concept of ether in physics
  • Basic knowledge of special relativity principles
  • Ability to interpret time dilation effects
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  • Study Lorentz transformations in detail
  • Explore the historical context and implications of the ether theory
  • Learn about time dilation and its mathematical representation
  • Investigate the experimental evidence supporting special relativity
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Physics students, educators, and anyone interested in the foundational concepts of special relativity and the implications of Lorentz theory on velocity and time measurement.

bos3yed651
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This is my first thread. I hope I do it right. I just started reading the book Special Relativity by W.Rindler. And as I was reading it, I stumbled upon a pickle. So in Lorentz theory, it says, supposedly we could measure the original to-and-fro time T2 directly with a clock, and suppose we then move the arm L2 along with ether so that v becomes zero. My question is how v became zero and I know that the question might sound stupid to some but please dazzle me.
A pdf of the page is attached along. Thank you for your time :)
 

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##v## is the velocity of the experiment relative to the (supposed) ether. If the experiment is moving along with the ether then their relative velocity is zero.
 
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thanks, made my a day a lot easier.
 
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