How Does Lorentz's Equation Transform into Cauchy's Law?

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on the transformation of Lorentz's equation for refractive indexes, given by ##n^2(\omega) = 1 + \frac {\omega^2_p} {\omega^2_0 - \omega^2}##, into Cauchy's empirical law, ##n(\lambda)=A+\frac B {\lambda^2}##, under the condition that ##\omega << \omega_0##. Participants explore how to express coefficients A and B in terms of the Lorentz model parameters, resonant frequency ##\omega_0## and plasma frequency ##\omega_p##. The conversation emphasizes the use of Taylor series expansion and the approximation of terms to derive the relationship between the two equations.

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  • Understanding of Lorentz model for refractive indexes
  • Familiarity with Cauchy's empirical law
  • Knowledge of Taylor series expansion
  • Basic concepts of resonant frequency and plasma frequency
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  • Learn about Taylor series and its applications in physics
  • Investigate the relationship between resonant frequency and plasma frequency
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DannyJ108
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Homework Statement
Prove that when frequency is small, the Lorentz model for a refractive index in dielectrics becomes Cauchy's empirical law
Relevant Equations
##n^2(\omega) = 1 + \frac {\omega^2_p} {\omega^2_0 - \omega^2}##
##n(\lambda)=A+\frac B {\lambda^2}##
Hello fellow physicists,

I need to prove that when ##\omega << \omega_0##, Lorentz equation for refractive indexes:
##n^2(\omega) = 1 + \frac {\omega^2_p} {\omega^2_0 - \omega^2}##
turns into Cauchy's empirical law:
##n(\lambda)=A+\frac B {\lambda^2}##
I also need to express A and B as a function of the Lorentz model parameters: ##\omega_0## and ##\omega_p##, where:
##\omega_0##: resonant frequency
##\omega_p##: plasma frequency

Any idea on how I could approach and do this?

Thank you in advance!
 
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Do you know how to approximate ##\large \frac 1 {1-x}## when ##x \ll 1##?
 
TSny said:
Do you know how to approximate ##\large \frac 1 {1-x}## when ##x \ll 1##?
Yes, I do, but I don't know how I would get that expression with the equation I have. If ##\omega << \omega_0## , the equation would result in:
##n^2(\omega) = 1 + \frac {\omega^2_p} {\omega^2_0}##
 
DannyJ108 said:
If ##\omega << \omega_0## , the equation would result in:
##n^2(\omega) = 1 + \frac {\omega^2_p} {\omega^2_0}##
Whoa. :wideeyed: That's going too far.

If ##\omega \ll \omega_0##, how does ##\frac {\omega^2} {\omega_0^2}## compare to 1?

If you let ##x = \frac {\omega^2} {\omega_0^2}##, can you rearrange the denominator in ##n^2(\omega)## to get a factor of ##1-x##?
 
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DannyJ108 said:
Homework Statement:: Prove that when frequency is small, the Lorentz model for a refractive index in dielectrics becomes Cauchy's empirical law
Relevant Equations:: ##n^2(\omega) = 1 + \frac {\omega^2_p} {\omega^2_0 - \omega^2}##
##n(\lambda)=A+\frac B {\lambda^2}##

Hello fellow physicists,

I need to prove that when ##\omega << \omega_0##, Lorentz equation for refractive indexes:
##n^2(\omega) = 1 + \frac {\omega^2_p} {\omega^2_0 - \omega^2}##
turns into Cauchy's empirical law:
##n(\lambda)=A+\frac B {\lambda^2}##
I also need to express A and B as a function of the Lorentz model parameters: ##\omega_0## and ##\omega_p##, where:
##\omega_0##: resonant frequency
##\omega_p##: plasma frequency

Any idea on how I could approach and do this?

Thank you in advance!
@DannyJ108 -- You are required to show more work at PF. Please use the hints provided by @TSny to motivate you to post your best efforts on this problem. Thank you.
 
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TSny said:
Whoa. :wideeyed: That's going too far.

If ##\omega \ll \omega_0##, how does ##\frac {\omega^2} {\omega_0^2}## compare to 1?

If you let ##x = \frac {\omega^2} {\omega_0^2}##, can you rearrange the denominator in ##n^2(\omega)## to get a factor of ##1-x##?

I have rearranged the equation to get:
##n^2(\omega)=1+\frac {\frac {\omega_p^2} {\omega_0^2}} {1-\frac {\omega^2} {\omega_0^2}}##

Since ##\omega << \omega_0##, ##\frac {\omega^2} {\omega_0^2}## will be smaller than 1, so I can expand that fraction as a Taylor series to get:

##n(\lambda)=\sqrt{1+\frac {\omega_p^2} {\omega_0^2} + \frac {\omega_p^2} {\omega_0^4}4\pi^2 c^2 \frac {1} {\lambda^2}} (eq.1)##

Where I have used: ##\omega=\frac {2\pi c} \lambda##

However, in Cauchy's law, ##n## is not squared:

##n(\lambda)=A+\frac B {\lambda^2}##

So I don't know how I could group the terms in ##eq. 1## to establish the ##A## and ##B## coefficients, I do however get the ##\lambda^2## in the denominator, so that's a good thing.

How could I proceed from here?
 
Last edited:
How would you approximate ##\sqrt{a + b}## assuming ##b \ll a##?
 
TSny said:
How would you approximate ##\sqrt{a + b}## assuming ##b \ll a##?
But I'm not approximating ##\sqrt{a + b}## I'm approximating:
##\sqrt{1 + a + b}##
 
DannyJ108 said:
But I'm not approximating ##\sqrt{a + b}## I'm approximating:
##\sqrt{1 + a + b}##
Let ##a' = 1+a##. Then you have ##\sqrt{a' + b}##.
 

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