How Does Lorentz's Equation Transform into Cauchy's Law?

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on proving that the Lorentz equation for refractive indexes transitions to Cauchy's empirical law when the frequency is much smaller than the resonant frequency. Participants are exploring how to express the coefficients A and B in Cauchy's law as functions of the Lorentz model parameters, specifically the resonant frequency and plasma frequency. They discuss the implications of approximating terms when the frequency is low, particularly focusing on the Taylor series expansion of the refractive index equation. The conversation highlights the need to manipulate the equation to isolate terms that can be related to Cauchy's law. Overall, the thread emphasizes the mathematical approach required to bridge these two models in optics.
DannyJ108
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Homework Statement
Prove that when frequency is small, the Lorentz model for a refractive index in dielectrics becomes Cauchy's empirical law
Relevant Equations
##n^2(\omega) = 1 + \frac {\omega^2_p} {\omega^2_0 - \omega^2}##
##n(\lambda)=A+\frac B {\lambda^2}##
Hello fellow physicists,

I need to prove that when ##\omega << \omega_0##, Lorentz equation for refractive indexes:
##n^2(\omega) = 1 + \frac {\omega^2_p} {\omega^2_0 - \omega^2}##
turns into Cauchy's empirical law:
##n(\lambda)=A+\frac B {\lambda^2}##
I also need to express A and B as a function of the Lorentz model parameters: ##\omega_0## and ##\omega_p##, where:
##\omega_0##: resonant frequency
##\omega_p##: plasma frequency

Any idea on how I could approach and do this?

Thank you in advance!
 
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Do you know how to approximate ##\large \frac 1 {1-x}## when ##x \ll 1##?
 
TSny said:
Do you know how to approximate ##\large \frac 1 {1-x}## when ##x \ll 1##?
Yes, I do, but I don't know how I would get that expression with the equation I have. If ##\omega << \omega_0## , the equation would result in:
##n^2(\omega) = 1 + \frac {\omega^2_p} {\omega^2_0}##
 
DannyJ108 said:
If ##\omega << \omega_0## , the equation would result in:
##n^2(\omega) = 1 + \frac {\omega^2_p} {\omega^2_0}##
Whoa. :wideeyed: That's going too far.

If ##\omega \ll \omega_0##, how does ##\frac {\omega^2} {\omega_0^2}## compare to 1?

If you let ##x = \frac {\omega^2} {\omega_0^2}##, can you rearrange the denominator in ##n^2(\omega)## to get a factor of ##1-x##?
 
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DannyJ108 said:
Homework Statement:: Prove that when frequency is small, the Lorentz model for a refractive index in dielectrics becomes Cauchy's empirical law
Relevant Equations:: ##n^2(\omega) = 1 + \frac {\omega^2_p} {\omega^2_0 - \omega^2}##
##n(\lambda)=A+\frac B {\lambda^2}##

Hello fellow physicists,

I need to prove that when ##\omega << \omega_0##, Lorentz equation for refractive indexes:
##n^2(\omega) = 1 + \frac {\omega^2_p} {\omega^2_0 - \omega^2}##
turns into Cauchy's empirical law:
##n(\lambda)=A+\frac B {\lambda^2}##
I also need to express A and B as a function of the Lorentz model parameters: ##\omega_0## and ##\omega_p##, where:
##\omega_0##: resonant frequency
##\omega_p##: plasma frequency

Any idea on how I could approach and do this?

Thank you in advance!
@DannyJ108 -- You are required to show more work at PF. Please use the hints provided by @TSny to motivate you to post your best efforts on this problem. Thank you.
 
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TSny said:
Whoa. :wideeyed: That's going too far.

If ##\omega \ll \omega_0##, how does ##\frac {\omega^2} {\omega_0^2}## compare to 1?

If you let ##x = \frac {\omega^2} {\omega_0^2}##, can you rearrange the denominator in ##n^2(\omega)## to get a factor of ##1-x##?

I have rearranged the equation to get:
##n^2(\omega)=1+\frac {\frac {\omega_p^2} {\omega_0^2}} {1-\frac {\omega^2} {\omega_0^2}}##

Since ##\omega << \omega_0##, ##\frac {\omega^2} {\omega_0^2}## will be smaller than 1, so I can expand that fraction as a Taylor series to get:

##n(\lambda)=\sqrt{1+\frac {\omega_p^2} {\omega_0^2} + \frac {\omega_p^2} {\omega_0^4}4\pi^2 c^2 \frac {1} {\lambda^2}} (eq.1)##

Where I have used: ##\omega=\frac {2\pi c} \lambda##

However, in Cauchy's law, ##n## is not squared:

##n(\lambda)=A+\frac B {\lambda^2}##

So I don't know how I could group the terms in ##eq. 1## to establish the ##A## and ##B## coefficients, I do however get the ##\lambda^2## in the denominator, so that's a good thing.

How could I proceed from here?
 
Last edited:
How would you approximate ##\sqrt{a + b}## assuming ##b \ll a##?
 
TSny said:
How would you approximate ##\sqrt{a + b}## assuming ##b \ll a##?
But I'm not approximating ##\sqrt{a + b}## I'm approximating:
##\sqrt{1 + a + b}##
 
DannyJ108 said:
But I'm not approximating ##\sqrt{a + b}## I'm approximating:
##\sqrt{1 + a + b}##
Let ##a' = 1+a##. Then you have ##\sqrt{a' + b}##.
 
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