I How does the angle γ change under inversion in Euler angles?

ftft
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The well known Euler angles (αβγ) are defined as in the image
200px-EulerProjections.svg.png


It is easy to see that under inversion
α → π+α
β → π-β
but I cannot figure out how γ transforms under inversion. actually I am stuck at the question whether I should measure it from the same intersection line ON (thence γ →π+γ) or if the latter is also inverted (I think then I will have γ→γ)
 
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First, I'm not convinced that the two formulas you have are, in fact, "easy to see." Second, I don't understand how this question falls under the category of topology or analysis.
 
Oops! Then I am moving my question to general math
 
A sphere as topological manifold can be defined by gluing together the boundary of two disk. Basically one starts assigning each disk the subspace topology from ##\mathbb R^2## and then taking the quotient topology obtained by gluing their boundaries. Starting from the above definition of 2-sphere as topological manifold, shows that it is homeomorphic to the "embedded" sphere understood as subset of ##\mathbb R^3## in the subspace topology.
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