Takuya925 said:
So for acceleration part:
Wacc = (Fapp - Ffric)d
Keep in mind that it is the
engine doing the work through the applied force, so we have F_net = F_app - F_fric and we need
Wacc =
F_app · d , with this d given by
with v_init = 0 and t = 12 seconds. (You could even use the "velocity squared" equation to find d:
(v_final)^2 = (v_init)^2 + 2·a·d . )
For Wcv we have no acceleration, but there's friction force thus:
Wcv = (Ffric)x
Wcv = (umg)x
Where:
x = Distance traveled during constant velocity.
This part is fine. We know that W_acc + W_cv = 32·10^6 J , so we can solve for x. The answer to the question, as I'm reading it, is d + x .
Sub everything and find x, then add d and x together to find how far the car travels:
36000 = (ma - umg)d + (umg)x
This will be
32,000,000 = (ma
+ umg)d + (umg)x .
The total work is 32,000
kilojoules.
Another method I found is calculating Wcv energy from energy equation thus:
Wcv = E = 0.5mV^2 (Energy lost due to friction during constant velocity?)
I'm afraid this isn't so. The kinetic energy is being sustained by the engine at 0.5mV^2 ,
despite the work done by friction, so this couldn't be the work done by the engine. The engine is working to
cancel the effect of friction, so the work done by the engine in the "cruise" phase will be equal in magnitude to the work done by friction, (umg)x .
[It should be mentioned that we are, of course, ignoring air resistance in this problem. In fact, for a real automobile, the effect of air drag is far larger than the effect of road friction.]